Roll No.
Q.P. Code 59/1/1
Political Science
CBSE Class XII Board Examination 2023 — with answers
Time allowed: 3 hoursMaximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
- The paper has 30 questions in five sections (A to E); all of them must be answered.
- Section A: Q1–12, multiple choice (including Assertion-Reason), 1 mark each.
- Section B: Q13–18, short answer, 2 marks each (up to about 50 words).
- Section C: Q19–23, long answer, 4 marks each (up to about 100 words).
- Section D: Q24–26, based on a passage, a map and a cartoon, 4 marks each.
- Section E: Q27–30, long answer, 6 marks each (up to about 170 words).
- There is no overall choice, but some questions offer an internal choice (OR); attempt only one of the choices.
SECTION A
Q1–12 are multiple choice questions of 1 mark each.
1.
Complete the sentence with the correct option: Mikhail Gorbachev was ______.
- (A) General Secretary of the Communist Party of the USSR
- (B) the founder of the Communist Party of Russia
- (C) a leader of the Western European countries
- (D) a leader who opposed reforms in the USSR
Answer
(a) General Secretary of the Communist Party of the USSR
Gorbachev became General Secretary of the Communist Party of the Soviet Union in 1985.
He started the reforms of perestroika (restructuring) and glasnost (openness) – so he was a reformer, not an opponent of reform.
The Bolshevik/Communist Party was founded by Lenin, not Gorbachev.
He started the reforms of perestroika (restructuring) and glasnost (openness) – so he was a reformer, not an opponent of reform.
The Bolshevik/Communist Party was founded by Lenin, not Gorbachev.
1
2.
Complete the sentence with the correct option: The Arab Spring was a ______.
- (A) political movement
- (B) cultural movement
- (C) social movement
- (D) environmental movement
Answer
(a) Political movement
The Arab Spring (starting in Tunisia at the end of 2010 and spreading in 2011) was a wave of protests in West Asian and North African countries demanding democracy and the end of authoritarian rule.
Its main aim was a change of political system, so it was a political movement.
Its main aim was a change of political system, so it was a political movement.
1
3.
Which organisation has the job of preventing international conflicts?
- (A) UN Human Rights Commission
- (B) UN Security Council
- (C) ASEAN
- (D) Amnesty International
Answer
(b) United Nations Security Council
Under the UN Charter the Security Council has the primary responsibility for maintaining international peace and security – it can call for ceasefires, impose sanctions and authorise peacekeeping.
Amnesty International is an NGO for human rights; ASEAN is a regional body; the Human Rights body deals with rights, not conflicts.
Amnesty International is an NGO for human rights; ASEAN is a regional body; the Human Rights body deals with rights, not conflicts.
1
4.
Which one of these is NOT a threat to global security?
- (A) Global warming
- (B) International terrorism
- (C) Epidemics
- (D) Rising prices
Answer
(d) Rising prices
Global warming, international terrorism and epidemics (HIV-AIDS, SARS, COVID etc.) are non-traditional threats that cross borders and affect all humanity.
Rising prices (inflation) is a domestic economic problem, not a threat to global security.
Rising prices (inflation) is a domestic economic problem, not a threat to global security.
1
5.
Which statements about the environment are correct?
(i) Environmental concerns are a part of global politics.
(ii) A conference on the environment took place in Rio de Janeiro in 1992.
(iii) The UN has given its environmental programmes to the UN Human Rights Commission.
(iv) The Earth Summit was organised by the United Nations.
(i) Environmental concerns are a part of global politics.
(ii) A conference on the environment took place in Rio de Janeiro in 1992.
(iii) The UN has given its environmental programmes to the UN Human Rights Commission.
(iv) The Earth Summit was organised by the United Nations.
- (A) (i), (iii), (iv)
- (B) (i), (ii), (iv)
- (C) (i), (ii), (iii)
- (D) (ii), (iii), (iv)
Answer
(b) (i), (ii), (iv)
(i) True – environmental issues became part of world politics from the 1960s onwards.
(ii) True – the UN Conference on Environment and Development (Earth Summit) was held in Rio de Janeiro in June 1992.
(iv) True – it was a UN conference.
(iii) False – UN environmental work is done by the UN Environment Programme (UNEP), not the Human Rights Commission.
(ii) True – the UN Conference on Environment and Development (Earth Summit) was held in Rio de Janeiro in June 1992.
(iv) True – it was a UN conference.
(iii) False – UN environmental work is done by the UN Environment Programme (UNEP), not the Human Rights Commission.
1
6.
What is the main cause of globalisation?
- (A) Formation of the United Nations
- (B) Development of new technology
- (C) Setting up of the World Bank
- (D) Economic rise of India and China
Answer
(b) The development of new technology
Technology (telegraph, telephone, microchip, internet, cheap transport) made it possible for ideas, capital, goods and people to move across the world quickly.
That is why NCERT calls technology the most important cause of globalisation.
That is why NCERT calls technology the most important cause of globalisation.
1
7.
Pick the option in which ALL the states are in North-East India.
- (A) Assam, Manipur, Chhattisgarh
- (B) Manipur, Tripura, Nagaland
- (C) Jharkhand, Nagaland, Uttarakhand
- (D) Manipur, Maharashtra, Mizoram
Answer
(b) Manipur, Tripura, Nagaland
The North-East states: Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Tripura (and Sikkim).
Each other option has one state from elsewhere – Chhattisgarh (central), Jharkhand and Uttarakhand, Maharashtra (west).
Each other option has one state from elsewhere – Chhattisgarh (central), Jharkhand and Uttarakhand, Maharashtra (west).
1
8.
Complete the sentence: The Government of India adopted Five Year Plans as a policy of ______.
- (A) planned development
- (B) mixed economy
- (C) socialism
- (D) industrialisation
Answer
(a) Planned development
After independence India chose planning as the method of development; the Planning Commission (1950) made Five Year Plans fixing targets and spending for each period – this is planned development.
Mixed economy was the model, but the Five Year Plans themselves are the tool of planned development.
Mixed economy was the model, but the Five Year Plans themselves are the tool of planned development.
1
9.
Who called for a nationwide railway strike in 1974?
- (A) Jayaprakash Narayan
- (B) George Fernandes
- (C) Ram Manohar Lohia
- (D) Morarji Desai
Answer
(b) George Fernandes
In May 1974 George Fernandes, leader of the National Coordination Committee for Railwaymen's Struggle, led a nationwide railway strike for better pay and bonus.
The government declared it illegal – it added to the unrest before the Emergency.
The government declared it illegal – it added to the unrest before the Emergency.
1
10.
Put these in the order in which they happened:
(i) Pakistan sent tribal infiltrators into Kashmir.
(ii) Sheikh Abdullah became Prime Minister of Jammu and Kashmir.
(iii) Longowal and Rajiv Gandhi signed the Punjab Accord.
(iv) Jammu and Kashmir was a princely state.
(i) Pakistan sent tribal infiltrators into Kashmir.
(ii) Sheikh Abdullah became Prime Minister of Jammu and Kashmir.
(iii) Longowal and Rajiv Gandhi signed the Punjab Accord.
(iv) Jammu and Kashmir was a princely state.
- (A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
- (B) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)
- (C) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
- (D) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
Answer
(b) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)
(iv) Before 1947 J&K was a princely state under Maharaja Hari Singh.
(i) October 1947 – Pakistan sent tribal infiltrators; the Maharaja signed the Instrument of Accession.
(ii) March 1948 – Sheikh Abdullah became Prime Minister of J&K.
(iii) July 1985 – Rajiv Gandhi–Longowal Punjab Accord.
(i) October 1947 – Pakistan sent tribal infiltrators; the Maharaja signed the Instrument of Accession.
(ii) March 1948 – Sheikh Abdullah became Prime Minister of J&K.
(iii) July 1985 – Rajiv Gandhi–Longowal Punjab Accord.
1
11.
Which Prime Minister was the first to start economic reforms in India?
- (A) Indira Gandhi
- (B) Rajiv Gandhi
- (C) Manmohan Singh
- (D) Inder Kumar Gujral
Answer
(b) Rajiv Gandhi
NCERT notes that the shift to economic reforms (New Economic Policy) was initiated under Rajiv Gandhi in the mid-1980s; it became visible in a big way in 1991 (Narasimha Rao govt., Finance Minister Manmohan Singh).
Common mistake: choosing Manmohan Singh – he carried the 1991 reforms forward, but the question asks who first started them (marking scheme: Rajiv Gandhi).
Common mistake: choosing Manmohan Singh – he carried the 1991 reforms forward, but the question asks who first started them (marking scheme: Rajiv Gandhi).
1
12.
Assertion (A): In May 1977 the Janata Party government set up a Commission of Inquiry headed by Justice J.C. Shah.
Reason (R): The Commission was set up to inquire into the reasons why the Indira Gandhi government declared the Emergency.
Reason (R): The Commission was set up to inquire into the reasons why the Indira Gandhi government declared the Emergency.
- (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
- (B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
- (C) A is true, but R is false.
- (D) A is false, but R is true.
Answer
(c) A is true, but R is false
A is true: the Shah Commission was appointed in May 1977.
R is false: its task was to inquire into the excesses, abuse of authority and malpractices committed during the Emergency (1975–77), not the reasons for declaring it.
R is false: its task was to inquire into the excesses, abuse of authority and malpractices committed during the Emergency (1975–77), not the reasons for declaring it.
1
SECTION B
Q13–18 are short answer questions of 2 marks each.
13.
Highlight any two important features of the 'ASEAN way'.
Answer
Informal, non-confrontational and cooperative interaction; respect for national sovereignty (any two)
The ASEAN Way is the style in which ASEAN members deal with each other:
1. Informal – decisions by consultation and consensus, not by rigid rules.
2. Non-confrontational – disputes are avoided or settled quietly through dialogue.
3. Cooperative – members work together on economy, security and culture.
4. Respect for the national sovereignty of each member (non-interference in internal affairs).
Any two points, 1 mark each.
1. Informal – decisions by consultation and consensus, not by rigid rules.
2. Non-confrontational – disputes are avoided or settled quietly through dialogue.
3. Cooperative – members work together on economy, security and culture.
4. Respect for the national sovereignty of each member (non-interference in internal affairs).
Any two points, 1 mark each.
2
14.
Using any two examples, show the strength of the United Nations.
Answer
UN brings nations together to solve global problems and settle disputes peacefully – e.g. Lebanon–Israel ceasefire resolution, WHO's work during COVID-19
Strength of the UN: it is the one forum where all countries cooperate on global problems (warming, epidemics) and discuss disputes peacefully.
Example 1: Security Council resolution (2006) that helped end the Lebanon–Israel conflict.
Example 2: UN agencies like WHO helped nations deal with epidemics such as COVID-19 (also earlier SARS, HIV-AIDS).
Other valid examples: peacekeeping missions, UNICEF's child-health work. 1 mark per example.
Example 1: Security Council resolution (2006) that helped end the Lebanon–Israel conflict.
Example 2: UN agencies like WHO helped nations deal with epidemics such as COVID-19 (also earlier SARS, HIV-AIDS).
Other valid examples: peacekeeping missions, UNICEF's child-health work. 1 mark per example.
2
15.
What is meant by 'security'? Explain.
Answer
Security = freedom from threats, especially threats to a country's core values
At its basic level security means freedom from threats.
Not every danger counts – only threats that endanger 'core values' (sovereignty, territorial integrity, lives of people) so seriously that they could be damaged beyond repair.
Traditionally it meant military security; today it also covers non-traditional threats like terrorism, epidemics and poverty.
Not every danger counts – only threats that endanger 'core values' (sovereignty, territorial integrity, lives of people) so seriously that they could be damaged beyond repair.
Traditionally it meant military security; today it also covers non-traditional threats like terrorism, epidemics and poverty.
2
16.
Name any four regional parties that have formed a government in some state.
Answer
e.g. BSP (Uttar Pradesh), Asom Gana Parishad (Assam), Shiromani Akali Dal (Punjab), Shiv Sena (Maharashtra), National Conference (J&K), DMK/AIADMK (Tamil Nadu)
Any four, ½ mark each:
1. Bahujan Samaj Party – Uttar Pradesh
2. Asom Gana Parishad – Assam
3. Shiromani Akali Dal – Punjab
4. Shiv Sena – Maharashtra
5. National Conference – Jammu & Kashmir
6. DMK / AIADMK – Tamil Nadu; TDP – Andhra Pradesh; etc.
1. Bahujan Samaj Party – Uttar Pradesh
2. Asom Gana Parishad – Assam
3. Shiromani Akali Dal – Punjab
4. Shiv Sena – Maharashtra
5. National Conference – Jammu & Kashmir
6. DMK / AIADMK – Tamil Nadu; TDP – Andhra Pradesh; etc.
2
17.
State any two recommendations made by the Mandal Commission.
Answer
27% reservation for backward classes in government jobs and educational institutions; land reforms and other measures to improve OBC conditions
The Mandal Commission (Second Backward Classes Commission, chaired by B.P. Mandal, report 1980):
1. Reserve 27% of seats in educational institutions and government jobs for the Other Backward Classes.
2. Backward classes to be identified as backward castes other than SCs/STs (social and educational backwardness).
3. Land reforms and other steps to improve the condition of OBCs.
Any two, 1 mark each.
1. Reserve 27% of seats in educational institutions and government jobs for the Other Backward Classes.
2. Backward classes to be identified as backward castes other than SCs/STs (social and educational backwardness).
3. Land reforms and other steps to improve the condition of OBCs.
Any two, 1 mark each.
2
18.
In which year was the first coalition government formed in India, and why?
Answer
1989 at the Centre (National Front under V.P. Singh) – no party, including the Congress, won a clear majority (at state level: 1967)
Year (1 mark): 1989 – the National Front government of V.P. Singh, supported from outside by the BJP and the Left.
Reason (1 mark): in the 1989 Lok Sabha elections the Congress lost its majority and no single party had a clear majority, so parties had to join together.
Also accepted: at the state level the first coalition governments came in 1967 (SVD governments) because no party won a majority in those assemblies.
Reason (1 mark): in the 1989 Lok Sabha elections the Congress lost its majority and no single party had a clear majority, so parties had to join together.
Also accepted: at the state level the first coalition governments came in 1967 (SVD governments) because no party won a majority in those assemblies.
2
SECTION C
Q19–23 are long answer questions of 4 marks each.
19.
Give the full form of UNICEF and state any two of its functions.
Answer
United Nations International Children's Emergency Fund (now UN Children's Fund).
Functions: raises funds and runs programmes for children's welfare and development worldwide; promotes child health, nutrition, education and protection
Functions: raises funds and runs programmes for children's welfare and development worldwide; promotes child health, nutrition, education and protection
Full form (1 mark): United Nations International Children's Emergency Fund.
Functions (any two, 3 marks):
1. Collects funds and provides emergency relief for children during wars, disasters and famines across the world.
2. Supports programmes for child health and nutrition – immunisation, clean water, sanitation.
3. Promotes education, especially of girls, and protection of children from abuse and child labour.
Functions (any two, 3 marks):
1. Collects funds and provides emergency relief for children during wars, disasters and famines across the world.
2. Supports programmes for child health and nutrition – immunisation, clean water, sanitation.
3. Promotes education, especially of girls, and protection of children from abuse and child labour.
4
20.
Analyse any two effects of globalisation on your daily life.
Answer
More choice of goods and brands; new gadgets and lifestyle; foreign food, films and music; more job opportunities; higher living standards (any two, explained)
Any two, 2 marks each (point + explanation):
1. Wider choice in the market – foreign brands of clothes, phones, cars are easily available, often cheaper and better.
2. Technology in daily life – smartphones, internet, online shopping and digital payments have changed how we study, shop and talk.
3. Culture – food (pizza, burgers), films, music and festivals of other countries are now part of daily life.
4. Jobs – MNCs and outsourcing (IT, call centres) give new jobs; living standards of many have risen.
1. Wider choice in the market – foreign brands of clothes, phones, cars are easily available, often cheaper and better.
2. Technology in daily life – smartphones, internet, online shopping and digital payments have changed how we study, shop and talk.
3. Culture – food (pizza, burgers), films, music and festivals of other countries are now part of daily life.
4. Jobs – MNCs and outsourcing (IT, call centres) give new jobs; living standards of many have risen.
4
21.
Suggest any two ways to conserve natural resources.
Answer
Follow the 3 Rs (reduce, reuse, recycle); save forests and plant trees; use renewable energy; follow environmental laws and agreements (any two)
Any two, explained (2 marks each):
1. 3 Rs – reduce use of water, electricity and plastic; reuse things; recycle paper, metal and plastic.
2. Protect forests – stop deforestation, plant trees; forests protect soil, water and biodiversity.
3. Use renewable energy – solar, wind and hydro power instead of coal and oil.
4. Obey environmental laws and international agreements (e.g. Kyoto Protocol) on pollution and emissions.
1. 3 Rs – reduce use of water, electricity and plastic; reuse things; recycle paper, metal and plastic.
2. Protect forests – stop deforestation, plant trees; forests protect soil, water and biodiversity.
3. Use renewable energy – solar, wind and hydro power instead of coal and oil.
4. Obey environmental laws and international agreements (e.g. Kyoto Protocol) on pollution and emissions.
4
22.
Explain any four features of India's relations with Israel.
Answer
Old cultural links; full diplomatic ties from 1992; visits by top leaders (Modi to Israel 2017, Netanyahu to India 2018); cooperation in defence, counter-terrorism, agriculture, water, space and trade
Any four, 1 mark each:
1. Historical and cultural ties between the two peoples go back a long way.
2. Full diplomatic relations were established in 1992, with embassies in each other's capitals.
3. High-level visits – PM Narendra Modi visited Israel in 2017 and PM Netanyahu visited India in 2018.
4. Strong defence and security cooperation – arms supply, counter-terrorism.
5. Cooperation in agriculture (drip irrigation), water management, energy, science and space research, and trade.
1. Historical and cultural ties between the two peoples go back a long way.
2. Full diplomatic relations were established in 1992, with embassies in each other's capitals.
3. High-level visits – PM Narendra Modi visited Israel in 2017 and PM Netanyahu visited India in 2018.
4. Strong defence and security cooperation – arms supply, counter-terrorism.
5. Cooperation in agriculture (drip irrigation), water management, energy, science and space research, and trade.
4
23.
Highlight any four steps taken by Indira Gandhi to remove poverty.
Answer
Bank nationalisation (1969); abolition of privy purses; nationalisation of general insurance; ceiling on urban property; land reforms; public distribution of food grains (any four)
With the slogan 'Garibi Hatao' (1971) Indira Gandhi took these steps (any four, 1 each):
1. Nationalisation of 14 major private banks (1969) to give credit to farmers and small businesses.
2. Abolition of the privy purses of former princes.
3. Nationalisation of general insurance.
4. Ceiling on urban land and property.
5. Land reforms and land ceiling laws.
6. Public distribution of food grains to the poor.
1. Nationalisation of 14 major private banks (1969) to give credit to farmers and small businesses.
2. Abolition of the privy purses of former princes.
3. Nationalisation of general insurance.
4. Ceiling on urban land and property.
5. Land reforms and land ceiling laws.
6. Public distribution of food grains to the poor.
4
SECTION D
Q24–26 are passage, map and cartoon based questions of 4 marks each.
24.
Passage (summary): After the war with China, Indian leaders realised that the North-East was unstable; the region was cut off and very underdeveloped and also posed a challenge to national unity.
Answer the following questions based on the passage:
(i) Which of these is NOT a North-Eastern state? (a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Uttarakhand (c) Meghalaya (d) Tripura
(ii) Which state was most affected by the Sino-Indian conflict? (a) Assam (b) Nagaland (c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) Sikkim
(iii) Which state was created in the North-East just after the India–China war? (a) Nagaland (b) Assam (c) Sikkim (d) Arunachal Pradesh
(iv) Which political party split soon after the India–China war because of internal differences? (a) Swatantra Party (b) Congress Party (c) Communist Party of India (d) Jana Sangh
(i) Which of these is NOT a North-Eastern state? (a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Uttarakhand (c) Meghalaya (d) Tripura
(ii) Which state was most affected by the Sino-Indian conflict? (a) Assam (b) Nagaland (c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) Sikkim
(iii) Which state was created in the North-East just after the India–China war? (a) Nagaland (b) Assam (c) Sikkim (d) Arunachal Pradesh
(iv) Which political party split soon after the India–China war because of internal differences? (a) Swatantra Party (b) Congress Party (c) Communist Party of India (d) Jana Sangh
Answer
(i) (b) Uttarakhand (ii) (c) Arunachal Pradesh (iii) (a) Nagaland (iv) (c) Communist Party of India
(i) Uttarakhand is a Himalayan state in north India, not in the North-East.
(ii) In 1962 Chinese troops advanced deep into the NEFA region – today's Arunachal Pradesh – so it was hit hardest.
(iii) Nagaland became a state in 1963, right after the war.
(iv) The CPI was divided over its attitude to China/USSR; in 1964 the pro-China group formed the CPI(M).
(ii) In 1962 Chinese troops advanced deep into the NEFA region – today's Arunachal Pradesh – so it was hit hardest.
(iii) Nagaland became a state in 1963, right after the war.
(iv) The CPI was divided over its attitude to China/USSR; in 1964 the pro-China group formed the CPI(M).
4
25.
On a political outline map of India four States/UTs are marked A, B, C, D. Identify them using the clues, and write the clue number, the letter and the name.
Marked places: A – the northernmost region of India; B – a state in the east of the Gangetic plain, bordering Nepal, east of Uttar Pradesh; C – a state at the southern tip of the peninsula, on the east coast; D – a large state in north India bordering Nepal.
Clues:
(i) The state to which B.P. Mandal, Chairman of the Mandal Commission, belonged.
(ii) The state where the Bahujan Samaj Party formed its first government.
(iii) The Union Territory created in 2019.
(iv) The state where the Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK) began.
Marked places: A – the northernmost region of India; B – a state in the east of the Gangetic plain, bordering Nepal, east of Uttar Pradesh; C – a state at the southern tip of the peninsula, on the east coast; D – a large state in north India bordering Nepal.
Clues:
(i) The state to which B.P. Mandal, Chairman of the Mandal Commission, belonged.
(ii) The state where the Bahujan Samaj Party formed its first government.
(iii) The Union Territory created in 2019.
(iv) The state where the Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK) began.
Answer
(i) B – Bihar; (ii) D – Uttar Pradesh; (iii) A – Jammu and Kashmir; (iv) C – Tamil Nadu
(i) B.P. Mandal was a former Chief Minister of Bihar → B, Bihar.
(ii) The BSP first formed a government in Uttar Pradesh in 1995 under Mayawati → D, Uttar Pradesh.
(iii) In 2019 the state of J&K was reorganised into two UTs – Jammu and Kashmir, and Ladakh → A, Jammu and Kashmir.
(iv) The DMK was founded in Madras (Tamil Nadu) in 1949 by C.N. Annadurai → C, Tamil Nadu.
1 mark for each correct row.
(ii) The BSP first formed a government in Uttar Pradesh in 1995 under Mayawati → D, Uttar Pradesh.
(iii) In 2019 the state of J&K was reorganised into two UTs – Jammu and Kashmir, and Ladakh → A, Jammu and Kashmir.
(iv) The DMK was founded in Madras (Tamil Nadu) in 1949 by C.N. Annadurai → C, Tamil Nadu.
1 mark for each correct row.
4
26.
Cartoon (described): A man in traditional dress, labelled with the name of Sri Lanka's leader Rajapakse, stands on a small, shaky platform holding a long pole. At one end of the pole sits a lion (with Sinhala writing on it); at the other end, on the right, sits a tiger. He strains to keep the pole level.
Study the cartoon and answer the following questions:
(i) Which organisation does the tiger on the right stand for? (a) Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam (b) Liberal Tigers of Tamil Estate (c) Liberation Tigers of Tamil East (d) Liberal Tigers of Tamil Eelam
(ii) The conflict in Sri Lanka from 1983 onwards was based on: (a) government discrimination between political parties (b) government discrimination between two communities (c) government discrimination between two regions (d) government discrimination between two religions
(iii) Which statement about the Sri Lankan crisis is true? (a) India stayed away and did not interfere (b) India asked the UN to solve the problem (c) India signed an accord with Sri Lanka and got involved in solving the problem (d) India broke off diplomatic ties with Sri Lanka during the crisis
(iv) What does the cartoon convey? (a) The government managed to balance the two rival groups (b) Both groups were against the government (c) The government treated both communities equally (d) Keeping a balance between the two rival groups was very difficult
(i) Which organisation does the tiger on the right stand for? (a) Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam (b) Liberal Tigers of Tamil Estate (c) Liberation Tigers of Tamil East (d) Liberal Tigers of Tamil Eelam
(ii) The conflict in Sri Lanka from 1983 onwards was based on: (a) government discrimination between political parties (b) government discrimination between two communities (c) government discrimination between two regions (d) government discrimination between two religions
(iii) Which statement about the Sri Lankan crisis is true? (a) India stayed away and did not interfere (b) India asked the UN to solve the problem (c) India signed an accord with Sri Lanka and got involved in solving the problem (d) India broke off diplomatic ties with Sri Lanka during the crisis
(iv) What does the cartoon convey? (a) The government managed to balance the two rival groups (b) Both groups were against the government (c) The government treated both communities equally (d) Keeping a balance between the two rival groups was very difficult
Answer
(i) (a) LTTE (ii) (b) Discrimination between two communities (iii) (c) India signed an accord and got involved (iv) (d) Balancing the two rival groups was very difficult
(i) The tiger is the symbol of the LTTE (Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam), which fought for a separate Tamil state; the lion stands for Sinhala nationalism.
(ii) Sinhala-majority governments were seen as discriminating against the Tamil minority (language, jobs, education) – an ethnic conflict between two communities.
(iii) India signed the Indo-Sri Lanka Accord (1987) and sent the Indian Peace Keeping Force (IPKF).
(iv) The leader trying to hold the pole level between the lion and the tiger shows how hard it was to balance the two rival groups.
(ii) Sinhala-majority governments were seen as discriminating against the Tamil minority (language, jobs, education) – an ethnic conflict between two communities.
(iii) India signed the Indo-Sri Lanka Accord (1987) and sent the Indian Peace Keeping Force (IPKF).
(iv) The leader trying to hold the pole level between the lion and the tiger shows how hard it was to balance the two rival groups.
4
SECTION E
Q27–30 are long answer questions of 6 marks each.
27.
Analyse any three reasons for the disintegration of the Soviet Union.
Answer
Internal political and economic weakness – system failed people's aspirations
Huge spending on arms, nuclear weapons and space; people's needs neglected
Stagnant, unaccountable, corrupt one-party administration
Gorbachev's reforms raised expectations they could not meet
Rise of nationalism and demand for sovereignty in the republics
Huge spending on arms, nuclear weapons and space; people's needs neglected
Stagnant, unaccountable, corrupt one-party administration
Gorbachev's reforms raised expectations they could not meet
Rise of nationalism and demand for sovereignty in the republics
Any three, 2 marks each:
1. Internal weaknesses: the political and economic institutions were weak and could not meet people's aspirations; the economy stagnated for years, causing shortages of consumer goods.
2. Arms race burden: a large part of resources went into nuclear and military arsenals, space programmes and controlling satellite states in Eastern Europe; ordinary people's needs were neglected.
3. Stagnant, unaccountable system: the Communist Party was not answerable to people; rampant corruption and refusal to correct mistakes made the system unpopular.
4. Gorbachev's reforms: once information about the West's progress spread, people expected rapid change; reforms opened debate but split the leadership.
5. Nationalism: Russia and the Baltic, Ukrainian, Georgian and other republics demanded sovereignty, leading to the break-up in December 1991.
1. Internal weaknesses: the political and economic institutions were weak and could not meet people's aspirations; the economy stagnated for years, causing shortages of consumer goods.
2. Arms race burden: a large part of resources went into nuclear and military arsenals, space programmes and controlling satellite states in Eastern Europe; ordinary people's needs were neglected.
3. Stagnant, unaccountable system: the Communist Party was not answerable to people; rampant corruption and refusal to correct mistakes made the system unpopular.
4. Gorbachev's reforms: once information about the West's progress spread, people expected rapid change; reforms opened debate but split the leadership.
5. Nationalism: Russia and the Baltic, Ukrainian, Georgian and other republics demanded sovereignty, leading to the break-up in December 1991.
OR
Analyse any two reasons why the Arab Spring began, and any two outcomes of this movement.
Answer
Reasons: corruption, unemployment, poverty, long autocratic rule (any two)
Outcomes: demand for democracy spread across the Arab world; several long-standing dictators fell (Tunisia, Egypt, Libya) (any two)
Outcomes: demand for democracy spread across the Arab world; several long-standing dictators fell (Tunisia, Egypt, Libya) (any two)
4 points × 1½ marks.
Reasons (any two):
1. Corruption of ruling elites.
2. High unemployment, especially among educated youth.
3. Poverty and rising prices.
4. Decades of autocratic/dictatorial rule with no political freedom – started in Tunisia (2010) when a street vendor set himself on fire in protest.
Outcomes (any two):
1. The demand for democracy spread across West Asia and North Africa.
2. Long-ruling dictators were removed – Ben Ali in Tunisia, Hosni Mubarak in Egypt, Gaddafi in Libya.
3. In some countries (Syria, Libya, Yemen) it led to civil war and instability.
Reasons (any two):
1. Corruption of ruling elites.
2. High unemployment, especially among educated youth.
3. Poverty and rising prices.
4. Decades of autocratic/dictatorial rule with no political freedom – started in Tunisia (2010) when a street vendor set himself on fire in protest.
Outcomes (any two):
1. The demand for democracy spread across West Asia and North Africa.
2. Long-ruling dictators were removed – Ben Ali in Tunisia, Hosni Mubarak in Egypt, Gaddafi in Libya.
3. In some countries (Syria, Libya, Yemen) it led to civil war and instability.
6
28.
Highlight any three challenges India faced after independence.
Answer
Shaping a united nation that respects diversity (unity in diversity)
Establishing and sustaining democracy
Ensuring development and well-being of all, including weaker sections and minorities
Establishing and sustaining democracy
Ensuring development and well-being of all, including weaker sections and minorities
Any three, 2 marks each:
1. Challenge to shape a nation: India was large and diverse (languages, religions, cultures); the task was to build a united nation that accommodated this diversity; partition and princely states made it harder.
2. Challenge to establish democracy: India adopted representative democracy with universal adult franchise; it had to make democratic practices work and remove discrimination so that equality was real.
3. Challenge of development: to ensure the economic and social well-being of the whole society, end poverty, and give special protection to socially disadvantaged groups and religious and cultural minorities.
1. Challenge to shape a nation: India was large and diverse (languages, religions, cultures); the task was to build a united nation that accommodated this diversity; partition and princely states made it harder.
2. Challenge to establish democracy: India adopted representative democracy with universal adult franchise; it had to make democratic practices work and remove discrimination so that equality was real.
3. Challenge of development: to ensure the economic and social well-being of the whole society, end poverty, and give special protection to socially disadvantaged groups and religious and cultural minorities.
OR
Highlight Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel's role in bringing the princely states into the Indian Union. Support your answer with any three examples.
Answer
As Home Minister, persuaded and negotiated with rulers; most signed the Instrument of Accession by 15 Aug 1947
Hyderabad – police action (1948) after the Nizam refused
Junagadh – pressured to join after its ruler tried to go to Pakistan
Manipur – Maharaja made to sign the Merger Agreement (Sept 1949)
Hyderabad – police action (1948) after the Nizam refused
Junagadh – pressured to join after its ruler tried to go to Pakistan
Manipur – Maharaja made to sign the Merger Agreement (Sept 1949)
Role: As Deputy PM and Home Minister, Patel ('Iron Man of India') handled the integration of about 565 princely states. Through firm diplomacy, persuasion and, where needed, force, he got almost all rulers to sign the Instrument of Accession before 15 August 1947.
Examples (any three, 2 marks each):
1. Hyderabad: the Nizam wanted independence; after the Razakar violence the Indian army moved in (September 1948) and Hyderabad joined India.
2. Junagadh: its Nawab wanted to join Pakistan; popular protest and Indian pressure led to a plebiscite and accession to India.
3. Manipur: the Maharaja held elections and was hesitant; the government pressured him into signing the Merger Agreement in September 1949.
4. Kashmir: Maharaja Hari Singh signed the Instrument of Accession in October 1947 after the tribal invasion.
Examples (any three, 2 marks each):
1. Hyderabad: the Nizam wanted independence; after the Razakar violence the Indian army moved in (September 1948) and Hyderabad joined India.
2. Junagadh: its Nawab wanted to join Pakistan; popular protest and Indian pressure led to a plebiscite and accession to India.
3. Manipur: the Maharaja held elections and was hesitant; the government pressured him into signing the Merger Agreement in September 1949.
4. Kashmir: Maharaja Hari Singh signed the Instrument of Accession in October 1947 after the tribal invasion.
6
29.
On the basis of any three facts, evaluate the strength of the European Union as the most effective regional organisation.
Answer
Economic: one of the world's largest economies, GDP comparable to/larger than the US
Currency: the euro can challenge the US dollar
Military: combined forces second largest; France is a nuclear power
Political/diplomatic: France a permanent UNSC member; strong say in WTO and world affairs
Currency: the euro can challenge the US dollar
Military: combined forces second largest; France is a nuclear power
Political/diplomatic: France a permanent UNSC member; strong say in WTO and world affairs
Any three, 2 marks each:
1. Economic power: the EU is the world's largest/one of the largest economies, with GDP slightly larger than the US; it is the largest share of world trade.
2. Currency: the euro is a strong currency that can rival the US dollar.
3. Military power: its combined armed forces are second largest in the world; its total defence spending is second only to the US; two members (UK earlier, France) are nuclear powers.
4. Political influence: France (and the UK earlier) are permanent members of the UN Security Council; EU members are non-permanent members; it influences US policy and plays a big role in WTO and climate talks.
5. Supranational institutions: common foreign and security policy, a European Parliament and flag.
1. Economic power: the EU is the world's largest/one of the largest economies, with GDP slightly larger than the US; it is the largest share of world trade.
2. Currency: the euro is a strong currency that can rival the US dollar.
3. Military power: its combined armed forces are second largest in the world; its total defence spending is second only to the US; two members (UK earlier, France) are nuclear powers.
4. Political influence: France (and the UK earlier) are permanent members of the UN Security Council; EU members are non-permanent members; it influences US policy and plays a big role in WTO and climate talks.
5. Supranational institutions: common foreign and security policy, a European Parliament and flag.
OR
'In spite of many problems, people in every South Asian country support democracy and long for it.' Justify this with any three suitable examples.
Answer
Pakistan – military rule repeatedly replaced by elected governments (e.g. after 2008)
Nepal – people's movement ended the monarchy; became a democratic republic (2008)
Bangladesh – military rule gave way to multiparty elections; representative democracy from 1991
Sri Lanka, Bhutan, Maldives – democracy retained or adopted
Nepal – people's movement ended the monarchy; became a democratic republic (2008)
Bangladesh – military rule gave way to multiparty elections; representative democracy from 1991
Sri Lanka, Bhutan, Maldives – democracy retained or adopted
South Asian countries have seen military rule, monarchy and conflict, but people keep demanding democracy (any three, 2 marks each):
1. Pakistan: after periods of army rule (Ayub Khan, Zia, Musharraf) people's protests and elections restored civilian, elected governments (2008 onwards).
2. Nepal: a long people's movement (2006) forced the king to restore Parliament; the monarchy was abolished and Nepal became a democratic republic (2008).
3. Bangladesh: after military regimes, pro-democracy movements led to multi-party elections, and representative democracy was set up in 1991.
4. Sri Lanka has kept a democratic system despite ethnic conflict; Bhutan became a constitutional monarchy (2008); Maldives adopted multi-party democracy (2005).
Surveys also show large support for democracy among ordinary people in the region.
1. Pakistan: after periods of army rule (Ayub Khan, Zia, Musharraf) people's protests and elections restored civilian, elected governments (2008 onwards).
2. Nepal: a long people's movement (2006) forced the king to restore Parliament; the monarchy was abolished and Nepal became a democratic republic (2008).
3. Bangladesh: after military regimes, pro-democracy movements led to multi-party elections, and representative democracy was set up in 1991.
4. Sri Lanka has kept a democratic system despite ethnic conflict; Bhutan became a constitutional monarchy (2008); Maldives adopted multi-party democracy (2005).
Surveys also show large support for democracy among ordinary people in the region.
6
30.
Analyse any three reasons why the Congress Party dominated Indian politics in the first twenty years after independence.
Answer
Legacy of the national movement
Wide organisational network across the country
Accommodative 'social and ideological coalition' of all groups
Popular leaders like Nehru; first-past-the-post system gave it extra seats
Wide organisational network across the country
Accommodative 'social and ideological coalition' of all groups
Popular leaders like Nehru; first-past-the-post system gave it extra seats
Any three, 2 marks each:
1. Legacy of the freedom struggle: Congress had led the national movement, so people saw it as the party of independence; its leaders were well known.
2. Organisational strength: it had a network of units down to the local level across the country when other parties were just being formed.
3. Accommodative nature: it was a 'social and ideological coalition' that included rich and poor, rural and urban, left and right, different castes and religions – most other parties came out of it.
4. Leadership and electoral system: popular leaders like Nehru, and the first-past-the-post system gave Congress a much larger share of seats than votes.
1. Legacy of the freedom struggle: Congress had led the national movement, so people saw it as the party of independence; its leaders were well known.
2. Organisational strength: it had a network of units down to the local level across the country when other parties were just being formed.
3. Accommodative nature: it was a 'social and ideological coalition' that included rich and poor, rural and urban, left and right, different castes and religions – most other parties came out of it.
4. Leadership and electoral system: popular leaders like Nehru, and the first-past-the-post system gave Congress a much larger share of seats than votes.
OR
Analyse any three reasons for the declaration of Emergency in 1975.
Answer
Conflict between government and judiciary
Economic crisis after 1971 – rising prices, unemployment, unfulfilled 'Garibi Hatao' hopes
Gujarat and Bihar movements; JP's call for 'Total Revolution'
Allahabad High Court verdict (12 June 1975) setting aside Indira Gandhi's election
Opposition rally (25 June 1975) asking police/army not to obey 'illegal' orders
Economic crisis after 1971 – rising prices, unemployment, unfulfilled 'Garibi Hatao' hopes
Gujarat and Bihar movements; JP's call for 'Total Revolution'
Allahabad High Court verdict (12 June 1975) setting aside Indira Gandhi's election
Opposition rally (25 June 1975) asking police/army not to obey 'illegal' orders
Any three, 2 marks each:
1. Clash with the judiciary: disputes over Parliament's power to amend Fundamental Rights (right to property); supersession of judges (1973) – the government called the judiciary conservative.
2. Economic context: after the 1971 war and the 1973 oil shock, prices rose sharply and unemployment grew; 'Garibi Hatao' hopes were not met, causing discontent.
3. Gujarat and Bihar movements (1974): student protests against price rise and corruption; JP led the Bihar movement and called for 'Total Revolution'; railway strike of 1974.
4. Allahabad High Court judgment (12 June 1975): Indira Gandhi's election was declared invalid; the Supreme Court gave only a partial stay.
5. Opposition rally at Ramlila Maidan (25 June 1975): JP demanded her resignation and asked the army, police and officials not to obey illegal orders; the government said this threatened stability and declared Emergency under Article 352 that night.
1. Clash with the judiciary: disputes over Parliament's power to amend Fundamental Rights (right to property); supersession of judges (1973) – the government called the judiciary conservative.
2. Economic context: after the 1971 war and the 1973 oil shock, prices rose sharply and unemployment grew; 'Garibi Hatao' hopes were not met, causing discontent.
3. Gujarat and Bihar movements (1974): student protests against price rise and corruption; JP led the Bihar movement and called for 'Total Revolution'; railway strike of 1974.
4. Allahabad High Court judgment (12 June 1975): Indira Gandhi's election was declared invalid; the Supreme Court gave only a partial stay.
5. Opposition rally at Ramlila Maidan (25 June 1975): JP demanded her resignation and asked the army, police and officials not to obey illegal orders; the government said this threatened stability and declared Emergency under Article 352 that night.
6
— END —
Questions restated from the CBSE Class XII Board Examination 2023 (set 59/1/1) for practice. Reading passages and map items are described, not reproduced.