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Political Science · 2023 All years Show answers Download PDF PDF with answers
Roll No.
Q.P. Code 59/1/1

Political Science

CBSE Class XII Board Examination 2023

Time allowed: 3 hoursMaximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

  1. The paper has 30 questions in five sections (A to E); all of them must be answered.
  2. Section A: Q1–12, multiple choice (including Assertion-Reason), 1 mark each.
  3. Section B: Q13–18, short answer, 2 marks each (up to about 50 words).
  4. Section C: Q19–23, long answer, 4 marks each (up to about 100 words).
  5. Section D: Q24–26, based on a passage, a map and a cartoon, 4 marks each.
  6. Section E: Q27–30, long answer, 6 marks each (up to about 170 words).
  7. There is no overall choice, but some questions offer an internal choice (OR); attempt only one of the choices.

SECTION A

Q1–12 are multiple choice questions of 1 mark each.
1.
Complete the sentence with the correct option: Mikhail Gorbachev was ______.
  1. (A) General Secretary of the Communist Party of the USSR
  2. (B) the founder of the Communist Party of Russia
  3. (C) a leader of the Western European countries
  4. (D) a leader who opposed reforms in the USSR
1
2.
Complete the sentence with the correct option: The Arab Spring was a ______.
  1. (A) political movement
  2. (B) cultural movement
  3. (C) social movement
  4. (D) environmental movement
1
3.
Which organisation has the job of preventing international conflicts?
  1. (A) UN Human Rights Commission
  2. (B) UN Security Council
  3. (C) ASEAN
  4. (D) Amnesty International
1
4.
Which one of these is NOT a threat to global security?
  1. (A) Global warming
  2. (B) International terrorism
  3. (C) Epidemics
  4. (D) Rising prices
1
5.
Which statements about the environment are correct?
(i) Environmental concerns are a part of global politics.
(ii) A conference on the environment took place in Rio de Janeiro in 1992.
(iii) The UN has given its environmental programmes to the UN Human Rights Commission.
(iv) The Earth Summit was organised by the United Nations.
  1. (A) (i), (iii), (iv)
  2. (B) (i), (ii), (iv)
  3. (C) (i), (ii), (iii)
  4. (D) (ii), (iii), (iv)
1
6.
What is the main cause of globalisation?
  1. (A) Formation of the United Nations
  2. (B) Development of new technology
  3. (C) Setting up of the World Bank
  4. (D) Economic rise of India and China
1
7.
Pick the option in which ALL the states are in North-East India.
  1. (A) Assam, Manipur, Chhattisgarh
  2. (B) Manipur, Tripura, Nagaland
  3. (C) Jharkhand, Nagaland, Uttarakhand
  4. (D) Manipur, Maharashtra, Mizoram
1
8.
Complete the sentence: The Government of India adopted Five Year Plans as a policy of ______.
  1. (A) planned development
  2. (B) mixed economy
  3. (C) socialism
  4. (D) industrialisation
1
9.
Who called for a nationwide railway strike in 1974?
  1. (A) Jayaprakash Narayan
  2. (B) George Fernandes
  3. (C) Ram Manohar Lohia
  4. (D) Morarji Desai
1
10.
Put these in the order in which they happened:
(i) Pakistan sent tribal infiltrators into Kashmir.
(ii) Sheikh Abdullah became Prime Minister of Jammu and Kashmir.
(iii) Longowal and Rajiv Gandhi signed the Punjab Accord.
(iv) Jammu and Kashmir was a princely state.
  1. (A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
  2. (B) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)
  3. (C) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
  4. (D) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
1
11.
Which Prime Minister was the first to start economic reforms in India?
  1. (A) Indira Gandhi
  2. (B) Rajiv Gandhi
  3. (C) Manmohan Singh
  4. (D) Inder Kumar Gujral
1
12.
Assertion (A): In May 1977 the Janata Party government set up a Commission of Inquiry headed by Justice J.C. Shah.
Reason (R): The Commission was set up to inquire into the reasons why the Indira Gandhi government declared the Emergency.
  1. (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. (B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. (C) A is true, but R is false.
  4. (D) A is false, but R is true.
1

SECTION B

Q13–18 are short answer questions of 2 marks each.
13.
Highlight any two important features of the 'ASEAN way'.
2
14.
Using any two examples, show the strength of the United Nations.
2
15.
What is meant by 'security'? Explain.
2
16.
Name any four regional parties that have formed a government in some state.
2
17.
State any two recommendations made by the Mandal Commission.
2
18.
In which year was the first coalition government formed in India, and why?
2

SECTION C

Q19–23 are long answer questions of 4 marks each.
19.
Give the full form of UNICEF and state any two of its functions.
4
20.
Analyse any two effects of globalisation on your daily life.
4
21.
Suggest any two ways to conserve natural resources.
4
22.
Explain any four features of India's relations with Israel.
4
23.
Highlight any four steps taken by Indira Gandhi to remove poverty.
4

SECTION D

Q24–26 are passage, map and cartoon based questions of 4 marks each.
24.
Passage (summary): After the war with China, Indian leaders realised that the North-East was unstable; the region was cut off and very underdeveloped and also posed a challenge to national unity.
Answer the following questions based on the passage:
(i) Which of these is NOT a North-Eastern state? (a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Uttarakhand (c) Meghalaya (d) Tripura
(ii) Which state was most affected by the Sino-Indian conflict? (a) Assam (b) Nagaland (c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) Sikkim
(iii) Which state was created in the North-East just after the India–China war? (a) Nagaland (b) Assam (c) Sikkim (d) Arunachal Pradesh
(iv) Which political party split soon after the India–China war because of internal differences? (a) Swatantra Party (b) Congress Party (c) Communist Party of India (d) Jana Sangh
4
25.
On a political outline map of India four States/UTs are marked A, B, C, D. Identify them using the clues, and write the clue number, the letter and the name.
Marked places: A – the northernmost region of India; B – a state in the east of the Gangetic plain, bordering Nepal, east of Uttar Pradesh; C – a state at the southern tip of the peninsula, on the east coast; D – a large state in north India bordering Nepal.
Clues:
(i) The state to which B.P. Mandal, Chairman of the Mandal Commission, belonged.
(ii) The state where the Bahujan Samaj Party formed its first government.
(iii) The Union Territory created in 2019.
(iv) The state where the Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK) began.
4
26.
Cartoon (described): A man in traditional dress, labelled with the name of Sri Lanka's leader Rajapakse, stands on a small, shaky platform holding a long pole. At one end of the pole sits a lion (with Sinhala writing on it); at the other end, on the right, sits a tiger. He strains to keep the pole level.
Study the cartoon and answer the following questions:
(i) Which organisation does the tiger on the right stand for? (a) Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam (b) Liberal Tigers of Tamil Estate (c) Liberation Tigers of Tamil East (d) Liberal Tigers of Tamil Eelam
(ii) The conflict in Sri Lanka from 1983 onwards was based on: (a) government discrimination between political parties (b) government discrimination between two communities (c) government discrimination between two regions (d) government discrimination between two religions
(iii) Which statement about the Sri Lankan crisis is true? (a) India stayed away and did not interfere (b) India asked the UN to solve the problem (c) India signed an accord with Sri Lanka and got involved in solving the problem (d) India broke off diplomatic ties with Sri Lanka during the crisis
(iv) What does the cartoon convey? (a) The government managed to balance the two rival groups (b) Both groups were against the government (c) The government treated both communities equally (d) Keeping a balance between the two rival groups was very difficult
4

SECTION E

Q27–30 are long answer questions of 6 marks each.
27.
Analyse any three reasons for the disintegration of the Soviet Union.
OR
Analyse any two reasons why the Arab Spring began, and any two outcomes of this movement.
6
28.
Highlight any three challenges India faced after independence.
OR
Highlight Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel's role in bringing the princely states into the Indian Union. Support your answer with any three examples.
6
29.
On the basis of any three facts, evaluate the strength of the European Union as the most effective regional organisation.
OR
'In spite of many problems, people in every South Asian country support democracy and long for it.' Justify this with any three suitable examples.
6
30.
Analyse any three reasons why the Congress Party dominated Indian politics in the first twenty years after independence.
OR
Analyse any three reasons for the declaration of Emergency in 1975.
6
— END —
Questions restated from the CBSE Class XII Board Examination 2023 (set 59/1/1) for practice. Reading passages and map items are described, not reproduced.