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Roll No.
Q.P. Code 64/1/1

Geography

CBSE Class XII Board Examination 2025 — with answers

Time allowed: 3 hoursMaximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

  1. The paper has 30 questions in five sections (A, B, C, D, E); all questions are compulsory.
  2. Section A: Q1–17 are multiple-choice questions of 1 mark each.
  3. Section B: Q18 and Q19 are source-based questions of 3 marks each.
  4. Section C: Q20–23 are short-answer questions of 3 marks each (about 80–100 words).
  5. Section D: Q24–28 are long-answer questions of 5 marks each (about 120–150 words).
  6. Section E: Q29 and Q30 are map-based questions of 5 marks each.
  7. There is no overall choice, but some questions outside Section A have an internal choice. Visually impaired candidates get separate questions in place of map/picture questions.

SECTION A

Q1–17 are multiple-choice questions of 1 mark each. (17 × 1 = 17)
1.
Assertion (A): Every manufacturing industry is linked with raw materials.
Reason (R): Resources are necessary for the survival of human beings.
  1. (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
  4. (D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
Answer
(B) Both true, but R does not explain A
Manufacturing means converting raw materials into goods of higher value, so every industry needs some raw material – A is true.
Resources (land, water, food, minerals) are indeed essential for human survival – R is true.
But R talks about human survival in general; it does not tell us why industries depend on raw materials. So R is not the explanation of A.
Tip: in A-R questions always ask 'does R answer the WHY of A?'.
1
2.
Which statements about mining are correct?
i. In ancient times minerals were used for making tools and weapons.
ii. All developed countries are extracting more and more minerals for their development.
iii. Mining really developed only after the Industrial Revolution.
iv. Discovery of minerals passes through several stages.
  1. (A) Only ii, iii and iv are correct.
  2. (B) Only i, ii and iv are correct.
  3. (C) Only i, iii and iv are correct.
  4. (D) Only i, ii and iii are correct.
Answer
(C) Only i, iii and iv
i is true – early humans used minerals (flint, copper, bronze, iron) for tools and weapons.
iii is true – mining grew in importance only after the Industrial Revolution created huge demand.
iv is true – minerals are found through stages: surveying, exploration, testing, then extraction.
ii is false – many developed countries have actually reduced mining because it is costly and labour-heavy; they import minerals instead.
1
3.
Pick the main feature of quaternary activities.
  1. (A) It deals with extracting minerals for development.
  2. (B) It is limited to adding value to raw materials by making finished products.
  3. (C) It deals with research and development.
  4. (D) It is linked with serving all the people of society.
Answer
(C) Research and development
Quaternary activities are knowledge-based: collection, production and spreading of information, research and development (R&D), consultancy, IT, etc.
(A) is primary, (B) is secondary, (D) describes tertiary services in general.
1
4.
Put these Asian airports in order from west to east.
i. Beijing ii. Tokyo iii. Aden iv. Mumbai
  1. (A) iv, iii, ii and i
  2. (B) iv, iii, i and ii
  3. (C) iii, iv, ii and i
  4. (D) iii, iv, i and ii
Answer
(D) Aden, Mumbai, Beijing, Tokyo
Approximate longitudes: Aden (Yemen) ≈ 45°E, Mumbai ≈ 73°E, Beijing ≈ 116°E, Tokyo ≈ 140°E.
Increasing east longitude = moving west to east, so the order is iii, iv, i, ii.
1
5.
A port where goods are first brought in from many countries and then sent out again (re-exported) is called a ______.
  1. (A) Comprehensive Port
  2. (B) Outport
  3. (C) Entrepot Port
  4. (D) Packet Station
Answer
(C) Entrepot port
Entrepot ports are collection centres: goods from different countries are brought there and then re-exported. Examples: Singapore (for Asia), Rotterdam (for Europe), Copenhagen (Baltic).
Outports are deep-water ports built away from the main port; packet stations (ferry ports) carry passengers and mail across short distances.
1
6.
Arrange these oil refineries of India from south to north.
i. Mumbai ii. Kochchi (Kochi) iii. Kayali (Koyali) iv. Mangaluru
  1. (A) ii, iv, iii and i
  2. (B) ii, iv, i and iii
  3. (C) iv, ii, i and iii
  4. (D) iv, ii, iii and i
Answer
(B) Kochi, Mangaluru, Mumbai, Koyali
Go up the west coast: Kochi (Kerala, ≈10°N) → Mangaluru (Karnataka, ≈13°N) → Mumbai (Maharashtra, ≈19°N) → Koyali near Vadodara (Gujarat, ≈22°N).
So the order is ii, iv, i, iii.
1
7.
In which district was the first phase (Stage I) of the Rajasthan (Indira Gandhi) Canal built?
  1. (A) Jaisalmer
  2. (B) Barmer
  3. (C) Jodhpur
  4. (D) Ganganagar
Answer
(D) Ganganagar
Stage I of the Indira Gandhi Canal command area covers Ganganagar, Hanumangarh and the northern part of Bikaner district – gently undulating land, irrigated from the early 1960s.
Stage II (Jaisalmer, Barmer, Jodhpur etc.) came later.
1
8.
What is the main objective of the Gas Authority of India Limited (GAIL)?
  1. (A) To transport natural gas and store it at its depot.
  2. (B) To process natural gas and allot it to different states.
  3. (C) To transport, process and market natural gas.
  4. (D) To sell stored natural gas for greater profit.
Answer
(C) Transport, process and market natural gas
GAIL was set up in 1984 as a public sector company to transport, process and market natural gas (for example through the HVJ – Hazira-Vijaipur-Jagdishpur pipeline).
1
9.
Assertion (A): Water transport has an important role in India's international trade.
Reason (R): India's east coast has more ports than its west coast.
  1. (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
  4. (D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
Answer
(C) A correct, R incorrect
A is true – about 95% of India's foreign trade by volume moves by sea through ports.
R is false – the west coast (Kandla/Deendayal, Mumbai, JNPT, Mormugao, New Mangaluru, Kochi) has more major ports than the east coast.
1
10.
Read these facts about the 'Swachh Bharat Mission' and choose the correct option.
i. It is part of the urban renewal mission.
ii. It was launched by the Government of India.
iii. It is linked with increasing greenery in urban areas.
iv. It aims at improving the quality of life in urban slums.
  1. (A) Only i, ii and iii are correct.
  2. (B) Only ii, iii and iv are correct.
  3. (C) Only i, ii and iv are correct.
  4. (D) Only i, iii and iv are correct.
Answer
(C) Only i, ii and iv
Swachh Bharat Mission was launched by the Government of India (2014) as part of the urban renewal effort; its aim is cleanliness, toilets and waste management, which improves living conditions in slums.
Statement iii (greenery) is not its objective – greening is covered by other programmes.
1
11.
Which unit is used to measure sound (noise level)?
  1. (A) Particles per hundred
  2. (B) Decibel
  3. (C) Particles per thousand
  4. (D) Nanometer
Answer
(B) Decibel (dB)
The loudness of sound/noise pollution is measured in decibels (dB). Sound above about 80–90 dB for long periods is harmful.
1
12.
Pick the correctly matched pair of area and its feature.
  1. (A) Jhabua District – Bhil Tribe
  2. (B) Daurala, Meerut – Gaddi Tribe
  3. (C) Bharmaur Tehsil – Dilapidated Houses
  4. (D) Dharavi, Mumbai – Groundwater Pollution
Answer
(A) Jhabua – Bhil tribe
Jhabua (Madhya Pradesh) is a Bhil-dominated district where watershed projects reversed land degradation – correct pair.
Gaddis live in Bharmaur (Himachal), not Daurala; Daurala (Meerut) is a case of groundwater pollution; Dharavi is known as a slum with dilapidated houses. So B, C, D are mismatched.
1
13.
"Some wastelands become unfit for farming because of human activities." Which of these fit the statement?
i. Shifting cultivation areas ii. Coastal plains iii. Degraded pastures iv. Bhabar areas
  1. (A) Only ii
  2. (B) Both ii and iv
  3. (C) Only iii
  4. (D) Both i and iii
Answer
(D) Both i and iii
NCERT classifies wastelands caused by human action as: degraded shifting-cultivation areas, degraded land under plantation crops, degraded forests, degraded pastures, mining wastelands.
Bhabar areas, coastal sands, gullied land etc. are natural wastelands. So i and iii.
1
14.
Fill in the blank: By 2050, about ______ of the world's population is expected to be living in urban areas.
  1. (A) One fourth
  2. (B) Half
  3. (C) Two third
  4. (D) Three fourth
Answer
(C) Two third
UN estimates quoted in NCERT: about two-thirds (≈68%) of the world's people will live in cities by 2050, which makes urban waste and pollution problems more serious.
1
15.
A table classifies countries by Human Development Index: Very High (above 0.800), High (0.700–0.799), Medium (0.550–0.699), Low (below 0.549). A note explains that high-HDI countries give priority to education and healthcare and invest heavily in the social sector with good governance, while medium-HDI countries (mostly emerging after World War II) are improving fast through people-oriented policies and less social discrimination.
The most important factor linked with high human development countries is ______.
  1. (A) maximum investment in social sector.
  2. (B) maximum investment in service sector.
  3. (C) maximum investment in industrial development.
  4. (D) maximum investment in agricultural development.
Answer
(A) Maximum investment in the social sector
High-HDI countries spend more on people – education, health, social welfare – which raises all three HDI dimensions (health, education, access to resources).
1
16.
(Based on the HDI table and passage given with Q15.) The big improvement seen in medium human development countries is mainly due to ______.
  1. (A) Development related policies
  2. (B) Environment related policies
  3. (C) Economy oriented policies
  4. (D) Society oriented policies
Answer
(D) Society (people) oriented policies
The note says medium-HDI countries are improving quickly by adopting people-oriented policies and reducing social discrimination – i.e. society-oriented policies.
1
17.
(Based on the HDI table given with Q15.) Which value shows the width of the score range of the 'Medium' category?
  1. (A) 0.049
  2. (B) 0.099
  3. (C) 0.149
  4. (D) 0.199
Answer
(C) 0.149
Medium category: 0.550 to 0.699.
Range = 0.699 − 0.550 = 0.149.
1

SECTION B

Q18 and Q19 are source-based questions of 3 marks each. (2 × 3 = 6)
18.
Source summary ('Case for Free Trade'): Opening economies by removing trade barriers such as tariffs is called free trade. It lets goods and services from everywhere compete with local ones. The source warns that globalisation and free trade can hurt developing countries through unequal and unfavourable conditions, and that cheap dumped goods can harm local producers.
(18.1) What is meant by 'trade liberalisation'? (1)
(18.2) How have globalisation and free trade affected the economies of developing countries? (1)
(18.3) Give any two steps developing countries should take to protect themselves from the bad effects of free trade. (½ + ½)
Answer
(18.1) Opening the economy by lowering trade barriers like tariffs. (18.2) Adversely – no level playing field, unfavourable conditions imposed. (18.3) Protect own markets from foreign products; guard against cheap dumped goods.
(18.1) Trade liberalisation = allowing free trade by bringing down barriers such as tariffs and quotas, so foreign goods and services can compete with domestic ones.
(18.2) They have been harmed: developed countries do not give a fair, equal playing field and impose terms that are unfavourable to developing nations.
(18.3) Any two: (i) keep their own markets protected from foreign products where needed; (ii) stay alert to dumping – goods sold below cost that ruin local producers (use anti-dumping duties); (iii) negotiate fairer terms through WTO/regional blocs.
3
19.
A map of Australia shows the Trans-Continental Railway as a dashed line running across the south of the continent, from a station on the south-west coast through Kalgoorlie, a station 'A' east of Kalgoorlie (on the Nullarbor plain), Port Augusta, Port Pirie, Peterborough, Broken Hill, a station 'B' east of Broken Hill (towards Parkes), and on to the south-east coast.
(19.1) In which part of the continent does this railway run? (1)
(19.2) Identify stations 'A' and 'B'. (½ + ½)
(19.3) Name the stations at the eastern and western ends of this railway. (½ + ½)
Answer
(19.1) Southern part. (19.2) A – Forrest, B – Roto. (19.3) East – Sydney, West – Perth.
(19.1) The line runs east–west across the southern part of Australia.
(19.2) As per the official answer key: A = Forrest (on the Nullarbor stretch between Kalgoorlie and Port Augusta), B = Roto (between Broken Hill and Parkes in New South Wales).
(19.3) Western terminal: Perth (west coast); eastern terminal: Sydney (east coast).
Remember the route: Perth – Kalgoorlie – Port Augusta – Broken Hill – Sydney.
3

SECTION C

Q20–23 are short-answer questions of 3 marks each. (4 × 3 = 12)
20.
"Nature and humans are closely interwoven." Analyse the statement.
Answer
Nature and humans are inseparable, to be seen holistically; physical features are described with human-body metaphors (face of the earth, mouth of a river, snout of a glacier); human creations are described like organisms (roads/railways as 'arteries').
1. Nature and human beings are inseparable parts of one whole, so human geography studies them together (holistically).
2. We describe physical features with terms from the human body – the face of the earth, eye of a storm, mouth of a river, snout of a glacier, neck of an isthmus.
3. Likewise human-made features are described as if natural – regions, villages and towns as 'organisms', and road, rail and water networks as 'arteries of circulation'.
(Any three points, 1 mark each.)
OR
"Human beings make use of the opportunities given by nature." Analyse the statement.
Answer
Possibilism: humans create possibilities from environmental resources; move from necessity to freedom; build a cultural landscape – imprints like hill resorts, cities, farms, ports, ocean routes, satellites.
1. With better technology people use the resources of their environment to create possibilities (possibilism).
2. Humans move from a stage of necessity (dependence on nature) to a stage of freedom.
3. Human activity produces a cultural landscape – nature is humanised.
4. Examples of these imprints: health resorts in highlands, large urban sprawls, fields, orchards and pastures in plains, ports on coasts, sea routes on oceans and satellites in space.
(Any three points.)
3
21.
Distinguish between rural and urban marketing centres, giving examples.
Answer
Rural centres: basic trade, weak personal/professional services, periodic (weekly) markets/mandis. Urban centres: specialised services, well-developed professional services, both periodic and permanent organised markets, manufactured & specialised goods.
1. Rural marketing centres serve nearby villages and offer only the most basic type of trade; urban marketing centres offer much more specialised services.
2. Personal and professional services (doctors, lawyers, banks) are poorly developed in rural centres but well developed in urban centres.
3. Rural areas depend mostly on periodic markets – weekly haats/bazaars; towns have weekly markets as well as permanent organised markets and malls.
4. Rural mandis often work as both wholesale and retail markets for local produce; urban markets sell manufactured goods and have specialised markets (e.g. markets for labour, housing, semi-finished and finished goods).
(Any three differences.)
3
22.
Why should India use non-conventional energy sources for sustainable development? Explain with examples.
Answer
Sustainable development links growth with environment; conventional fuels pollute and are exhaustible; solar, wind, tidal, geothermal, biomass are renewable and clean; reduce costly petroleum imports.
1. Sustainable development means growth that also protects the environment and keeps resources for future generations.
2. Conventional sources (coal, petroleum) are exhaustible and their use creates huge waste and pollution (smoke, greenhouse gases).
3. Non-conventional sources – solar (Rajasthan, Gujarat solar parks), wind (Tamil Nadu, Gujarat), tidal/wave, geothermal (Manikaran, Puga valley), biomass – are renewable and inexhaustible.
4. They are clean and, over time, cost-effective; they cut India's large bill for importing petroleum.
(Any three points.)
3
23.
A table 'India – Trends of Urbanisation 1961–2011' gives:
Year | Towns/UAs | Urban population (thousands) | % of total population | Decennial growth (%)
1961 | 2,365 | 78,936.6 | 17.97 | 26.41
1971 | 2,590 | 1,09,114 | 19.91 | 38.23
1981 | 3,378 | 1,59,463 | 23.34 | 46.14
1991 | 4,689 | 2,17,611 | 25.71 | 36.47
2001 | 5,161 | 2,85,355 | 27.78 | 31.13
2011 | 6,171 | 3,77,000 | 31.16 | 31.08
(23.1) In which census year was the decennial growth of urban population the highest?
(23.2) Explain the rising trend of urban population in India.
(23.3) Analyse the steady rise in the number of towns in India.
Answer
(23.1) 1981 (46.14%). (23.2) Urban share rose steadily from 17.97% (1961) to 31.16% (2011). (23.3) Towns rose from 2,365 to 6,171; fastest jump 1981–1991.
(23.1) Look at the last column – the largest value is 46.14% in 1981.
(23.2) Urban population rose every census: from about 7.9 crore (17.97% of the population) in 1961 to about 37.7 crore (31.16%) in 2011 – almost a fivefold increase, showing steady urbanisation.
(23.3) The number of towns/UAs increased every decade, from 2,365 in 1961 to 6,171 in 2011 (about 2.6 times). The biggest jump was 1981–1991 (+1,311 towns), due to industrialisation and growth of services.
3

SECTION D

Q24–28 are long-answer questions of 5 marks each. (5 × 5 = 25)
24.
Define immigration and emigration. Analyse the Demographic Transition Theory. (2 + 3)
Answer
Immigration – moving into a new place (immigrants); Emigration – moving out of a place (emigrants).
DTT: population moves from high birth & death rates to low birth & death rates as society goes from rural-agrarian-illiterate to urban-industrial-literate.
Stage I: high fertility & mortality, slow growth.
Stage II: fertility high then falls, mortality falls fast – rapid growth.
Stage III: both low – stable or slow growth.
Definitions (1 + 1):
Immigration: people who move into a new place are immigrants; the process is immigration.
Emigration: people who move out of a place are emigrants; the process is emigration.
Demographic Transition Theory (any three points):
1. It can describe and predict the future population of any area.
2. As a society changes from rural, agrarian and illiterate to urban, industrial and literate, population shifts from high births/high deaths to low births/low deaths.
3. Stage I – high fertility and high mortality; growth is slow because of epidemics and unreliable food supply; people are mostly illiterate farmers.
4. Stage II – fertility stays high at first and then falls; mortality drops quickly with better sanitation and health care, so the gap is wide and population grows fast.
5. Stage III – both fertility and mortality are low; population becomes stable or grows slowly; people are urban, literate and use family planning.
5
25.
"Transport cost plays an important role in deciding where industries are located." Justify with examples.
Answer
Fast, efficient transport needed to bring raw materials and send goods to market; low transport cost attracts concentration of industries; Western Europe & eastern North America – dense transport, dense industry; modern industry tied to transport; better transport → regional specialisation.
1. Industries need speedy and efficient transport to bring raw materials to the factory and to send finished goods to markets.
2. Where transport cost is low, industries tend to concentrate (e.g. near ports, rail junctions).
3. Western Europe and eastern North America have highly developed road, rail and waterway networks, which has always attracted heavy concentration of industry there.
4. Modern industry is inseparably tied to transport systems – without them, no assembly line or distribution is possible.
5. Improvement in transport led to integrated economic development and regional specialisation in manufacturing.
(Any five points.)
OR
"Dairy farming is mainly carried on near urban and industrial centres." Justify with examples.
Answer
Most advanced rearing of milch animals; cities give nearby market for fresh milk & products; transport, refrigeration, pasteurisation available; highly capital & labour intensive; breeding, health care, veterinary services near towns. E.g. NW Europe, Canada, NE USA, SE Australia, New Zealand.
1. Dairy farming is the most advanced and efficient type of rearing milch animals.
2. Towns and industrial centres provide a nearby market for fresh milk and dairy products, which are perishable.
3. Transport, refrigeration, pasteurisation and other preservation methods are easily available near urban areas, increasing the life of dairy products.
4. It is highly capital intensive (animal sheds, fodder storage, feeding and milking machines) and labour intensive (feeding and milking, no off-season).
5. Stress is laid on cattle breeding, health care and veterinary services, which are available near cities.
Examples: North-Western Europe, Canada, north-eastern USA, south-eastern Australia, New Zealand and Tasmania.
(Any five points.)
5
26.
Explain 'target area planning'. Analyse why target area planning was needed for development. (1 + 4)
Answer
Meaning: planning that tackles regional imbalance by focusing on the resource base of economically backward areas.
Need: development depends on resource base – even resource-rich areas stayed backward; regional & social disparities were widening; Planning Commission introduced target area & target group approaches; e.g. CADP, DPAP, Desert Development Programme, Hill Area programmes (8th Plan).
Meaning (1): Target area planning is the approach of reducing regional imbalance by concentrating on the resource base of economically backward regions.
Need (any four):
1. A region's development depends on its resources and technology; yet some resource-rich regions remained backward.
2. Regional imbalances in economic development were getting worse over the plans.
3. To check the rise of regional and social disparities, the Planning Commission introduced 'target area' and 'target group' approaches.
4. Examples of target area programmes: Command Area Development Programme, Drought Prone Areas Programme, Desert Development Programme, Hill Area Development Programme.
5. In the 8th Five Year Plan special area programmes were designed to build infrastructure in hill areas, north-eastern states, tribal and backward areas.
OR
Explain 'regional planning'. Assess the results of the Integrated Tribal Development Project in the Bharmaur region. (1 + 4)
Answer
Meaning: planning aimed at reducing regional imbalance in development.
Outcomes in Bharmaur: schools, health care, drinking water; roads & communication; electricity; big rise in literacy (esp. female); better sex ratio; fewer child marriages; less gender inequality; more pulses & cash crops.
Meaning (1): Regional planning is planning done to reduce imbalances in development between regions.
Outcomes of ITDP (1970s) in the Gaddi tribal area of Bharmaur, Chamba (any four):
1. Infrastructure developed – schools, health care facilities, potable water.
2. Roads and communication improved.
3. Electricity became available.
4. Literacy rose sharply, especially female literacy.
5. Sex ratio improved and child marriage declined.
6. Gender inequality reduced.
7. Cultivation of pulses and other cash crops increased (though pastoralism declined).
5
27.
"Indian Railways have helped move both goods and passengers and have added to economic growth." Support with suitable arguments.
Answer
One of the world's longest networks; gauge conversion & diesel/electric engines raised speed and haulage; metro rail transformed city transport; colonial links to raw-material, plantation, hill and cantonment towns, later extended; Konkan Railway links Mumbai–Mangaluru; main mass carrier of people and goods.
1. Indian Railways is one of the longest rail networks in the world, connecting all parts of the country.
2. Conversion of metre and narrow gauge to broad gauge and replacing steam engines with diesel and electric ones raised speed and haulage capacity.
3. Metro rail has revolutionised urban transport, moving lakhs of commuters quickly and raising their work efficiency.
4. Since colonial times railways linked raw-material areas, plantations, hill stations, ports and cantonments; after independence routes were extended to other regions.
5. The Konkan Railway along the west coast gave a direct link between Mumbai and Mangaluru across difficult terrain.
6. Railways remain the main carrier of the masses and of bulk goods like coal, iron ore, food grains and cement – supporting industry and agriculture.
(Any five points.)
OR
"Indian ports have kept growing to support successful international trade." Support with suitable arguments.
Answer
Ports grew steadily after independence; handle large domestic and overseas traffic; modern infrastructure; private players invited to modernise to international standards; capacity rose more than 40 times between 1951 and 2016.
1. Since independence the number and capacity of Indian ports have grown steadily (12 major and about 200 minor ports).
2. They handle large volumes of both coastal (domestic) and overseas trade – most of India's foreign trade moves through them.
3. Most ports now have modern infrastructure – mechanised cargo handling, container terminals.
4. Earlier development and modernisation was the government's job; now private entrepreneurs have been invited to bring the ports to international standards.
5. Cargo handling capacity has grown more than forty times, from about 20 million tonnes in 1951 to over 837 million tonnes in 2016.
(Any five points.)
5
28.
Evaluate the National Youth Policy of India for the all-round development of youth and adolescents.
Answer
Launched 2014; aims at proper education & channelising talents of youth; holistic vision for youth; empower youth to reach full potential so India takes its rightful place among nations; National Policy on Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (2015) as umbrella for skilling.
1. The National Youth Policy was launched in February 2014 (revising the earlier 2003 policy).
2. It aims to give proper education to adolescents so that their talents are channelised and properly used.
3. It puts forward a holistic 'vision' for the youth of India.
4. Its goal is to empower young people to achieve their full potential and, through them, help India find its rightful place among nations.
5. It is supported by the National Policy on Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (2015), an umbrella framework for all skilling activities.
Evaluation: it addresses the large adolescent population (about one-fifth of India) and their challenges like dropouts, drug abuse and low nutrition.
(Any five points.)
OR
Suggest measures for the all-round development of youth and adolescents in India.
Answer
Proper education; channelise talents; effective skill development; encourage entrepreneurship; remove drug abuse, alcoholism, delinquency; help overcome disabilities; tackle early marriage, female illiteracy, dropouts, poor nutrition, adolescent maternal mortality, HIV/AIDS.
1. Give proper and good quality education to adolescents.
2. Identify and channelise their talents properly.
3. Implement skill development programmes effectively.
4. Encourage entrepreneurship and self-employment among youth.
5. Root out social evils such as drug abuse, alcoholism, juvenile delinquency and crime through awareness and counselling.
6. Help young people overcome physical and mental disabilities.
7. Tackle problems like low age at marriage, female illiteracy, school dropouts, poor nutrition, high maternal mortality of adolescent mothers and HIV/AIDS.
(Any five measures.)
5

SECTION E

Q29 and Q30 are map-based questions of 5 marks each. (2 × 5 = 10)
29.
On a political outline map of the world, seven features are marked A–G. Identify any five:
A. A major sea port – marked at the southern tip of Africa.
B. A major airport – marked on the northern coast of Australia.
C. An inland waterway – marked across the narrow isthmus joining North and South America.
D. A major area of nomadic herding – a shaded area in south-west Asia between the Red Sea and the Persian Gulf.
E. A major area of commercial livestock rearing – a dotted area in south-east South America.
F. A major area of extensive commercial grain farming – marked in south-eastern Australia.
G. A major area of mixed farming – marked in the eastern part of North America.
Answer
A – Cape Town; B – Darwin; C – Panama Canal; D – Arabian Peninsula; E – Argentina (Pampas); F – Downs (Australia); G – Eastern North America.
A: Cape Town (South Africa) – major sea port at the Cape of Good Hope.
B: Darwin – airport on the north coast of Australia.
C: Panama Canal – links the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans.
D: Arabian Peninsula – nomadic herding of camels, goats and sheep in deserts.
E: Argentina/Uruguay (Pampas) – commercial livestock ranching.
F: Downs of south-east Australia – extensive commercial wheat farming.
G: Eastern North America – mixed farming (crops + livestock).
(Any five, 1 mark each.)
5
30.
On a political outline map of India, locate and label any five of these:
30.1 The state with the lowest population density (2011)
30.2 The leading sugarcane-producing state
30.3 A major sea port in Gujarat
30.4 A copper mining centre in Jharkhand
30.5 A manganese mining centre in Madhya Pradesh
30.6 An iron-ore mining centre in Maharashtra
30.7 An international airport in Karnataka
Answer
30.1 Arunachal Pradesh; 30.2 Uttar Pradesh; 30.3 Kandla (Deendayal Port); 30.4 Hazaribagh/Singhbhum; 30.5 Balaghat; 30.6 Ratnagiri/Chandrapur; 30.7 Bengaluru (Kempegowda).
30.1 Arunachal Pradesh – 17 persons/km² (Census 2011), the lowest of all states; mark it in the north-east.
30.2 Uttar Pradesh – largest producer of sugarcane.
30.3 Kandla (Deendayal Port) on the Gulf of Kachchh.
30.4 Hazaribagh or Singhbhum (Jharkhand) – copper.
30.5 Balaghat (Madhya Pradesh) – manganese.
30.6 Ratnagiri or Chandrapur (Maharashtra) – iron ore.
30.7 Bengaluru – Kempegowda International Airport.
Use a proper symbol (dot/triangle) and write the name clearly.
5
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Questions restated from the CBSE Class XII Board Examination 2025 (set 64/1/1) for practice. Reading passages and map items are described, not reproduced.