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Geography · 2025 All years Show answers Download PDF PDF with answers
Roll No.
Q.P. Code 64/1/1

Geography

CBSE Class XII Board Examination 2025

Time allowed: 3 hoursMaximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

  1. The paper has 30 questions in five sections (A, B, C, D, E); all questions are compulsory.
  2. Section A: Q1–17 are multiple-choice questions of 1 mark each.
  3. Section B: Q18 and Q19 are source-based questions of 3 marks each.
  4. Section C: Q20–23 are short-answer questions of 3 marks each (about 80–100 words).
  5. Section D: Q24–28 are long-answer questions of 5 marks each (about 120–150 words).
  6. Section E: Q29 and Q30 are map-based questions of 5 marks each.
  7. There is no overall choice, but some questions outside Section A have an internal choice. Visually impaired candidates get separate questions in place of map/picture questions.

SECTION A

Q1–17 are multiple-choice questions of 1 mark each. (17 × 1 = 17)
1.
Assertion (A): Every manufacturing industry is linked with raw materials.
Reason (R): Resources are necessary for the survival of human beings.
  1. (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
  4. (D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
1
2.
Which statements about mining are correct?
i. In ancient times minerals were used for making tools and weapons.
ii. All developed countries are extracting more and more minerals for their development.
iii. Mining really developed only after the Industrial Revolution.
iv. Discovery of minerals passes through several stages.
  1. (A) Only ii, iii and iv are correct.
  2. (B) Only i, ii and iv are correct.
  3. (C) Only i, iii and iv are correct.
  4. (D) Only i, ii and iii are correct.
1
3.
Pick the main feature of quaternary activities.
  1. (A) It deals with extracting minerals for development.
  2. (B) It is limited to adding value to raw materials by making finished products.
  3. (C) It deals with research and development.
  4. (D) It is linked with serving all the people of society.
1
4.
Put these Asian airports in order from west to east.
i. Beijing ii. Tokyo iii. Aden iv. Mumbai
  1. (A) iv, iii, ii and i
  2. (B) iv, iii, i and ii
  3. (C) iii, iv, ii and i
  4. (D) iii, iv, i and ii
1
5.
A port where goods are first brought in from many countries and then sent out again (re-exported) is called a ______.
  1. (A) Comprehensive Port
  2. (B) Outport
  3. (C) Entrepot Port
  4. (D) Packet Station
1
6.
Arrange these oil refineries of India from south to north.
i. Mumbai ii. Kochchi (Kochi) iii. Kayali (Koyali) iv. Mangaluru
  1. (A) ii, iv, iii and i
  2. (B) ii, iv, i and iii
  3. (C) iv, ii, i and iii
  4. (D) iv, ii, iii and i
1
7.
In which district was the first phase (Stage I) of the Rajasthan (Indira Gandhi) Canal built?
  1. (A) Jaisalmer
  2. (B) Barmer
  3. (C) Jodhpur
  4. (D) Ganganagar
1
8.
What is the main objective of the Gas Authority of India Limited (GAIL)?
  1. (A) To transport natural gas and store it at its depot.
  2. (B) To process natural gas and allot it to different states.
  3. (C) To transport, process and market natural gas.
  4. (D) To sell stored natural gas for greater profit.
1
9.
Assertion (A): Water transport has an important role in India's international trade.
Reason (R): India's east coast has more ports than its west coast.
  1. (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
  4. (D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
1
10.
Read these facts about the 'Swachh Bharat Mission' and choose the correct option.
i. It is part of the urban renewal mission.
ii. It was launched by the Government of India.
iii. It is linked with increasing greenery in urban areas.
iv. It aims at improving the quality of life in urban slums.
  1. (A) Only i, ii and iii are correct.
  2. (B) Only ii, iii and iv are correct.
  3. (C) Only i, ii and iv are correct.
  4. (D) Only i, iii and iv are correct.
1
11.
Which unit is used to measure sound (noise level)?
  1. (A) Particles per hundred
  2. (B) Decibel
  3. (C) Particles per thousand
  4. (D) Nanometer
1
12.
Pick the correctly matched pair of area and its feature.
  1. (A) Jhabua District – Bhil Tribe
  2. (B) Daurala, Meerut – Gaddi Tribe
  3. (C) Bharmaur Tehsil – Dilapidated Houses
  4. (D) Dharavi, Mumbai – Groundwater Pollution
1
13.
"Some wastelands become unfit for farming because of human activities." Which of these fit the statement?
i. Shifting cultivation areas ii. Coastal plains iii. Degraded pastures iv. Bhabar areas
  1. (A) Only ii
  2. (B) Both ii and iv
  3. (C) Only iii
  4. (D) Both i and iii
1
14.
Fill in the blank: By 2050, about ______ of the world's population is expected to be living in urban areas.
  1. (A) One fourth
  2. (B) Half
  3. (C) Two third
  4. (D) Three fourth
1
15.
A table classifies countries by Human Development Index: Very High (above 0.800), High (0.700–0.799), Medium (0.550–0.699), Low (below 0.549). A note explains that high-HDI countries give priority to education and healthcare and invest heavily in the social sector with good governance, while medium-HDI countries (mostly emerging after World War II) are improving fast through people-oriented policies and less social discrimination.
The most important factor linked with high human development countries is ______.
  1. (A) maximum investment in social sector.
  2. (B) maximum investment in service sector.
  3. (C) maximum investment in industrial development.
  4. (D) maximum investment in agricultural development.
1
16.
(Based on the HDI table and passage given with Q15.) The big improvement seen in medium human development countries is mainly due to ______.
  1. (A) Development related policies
  2. (B) Environment related policies
  3. (C) Economy oriented policies
  4. (D) Society oriented policies
1
17.
(Based on the HDI table given with Q15.) Which value shows the width of the score range of the 'Medium' category?
  1. (A) 0.049
  2. (B) 0.099
  3. (C) 0.149
  4. (D) 0.199
1

SECTION B

Q18 and Q19 are source-based questions of 3 marks each. (2 × 3 = 6)
18.
Source summary ('Case for Free Trade'): Opening economies by removing trade barriers such as tariffs is called free trade. It lets goods and services from everywhere compete with local ones. The source warns that globalisation and free trade can hurt developing countries through unequal and unfavourable conditions, and that cheap dumped goods can harm local producers.
(18.1) What is meant by 'trade liberalisation'? (1)
(18.2) How have globalisation and free trade affected the economies of developing countries? (1)
(18.3) Give any two steps developing countries should take to protect themselves from the bad effects of free trade. (½ + ½)
3
19.
A map of Australia shows the Trans-Continental Railway as a dashed line running across the south of the continent, from a station on the south-west coast through Kalgoorlie, a station 'A' east of Kalgoorlie (on the Nullarbor plain), Port Augusta, Port Pirie, Peterborough, Broken Hill, a station 'B' east of Broken Hill (towards Parkes), and on to the south-east coast.
(19.1) In which part of the continent does this railway run? (1)
(19.2) Identify stations 'A' and 'B'. (½ + ½)
(19.3) Name the stations at the eastern and western ends of this railway. (½ + ½)
3

SECTION C

Q20–23 are short-answer questions of 3 marks each. (4 × 3 = 12)
20.
"Nature and humans are closely interwoven." Analyse the statement.
OR
"Human beings make use of the opportunities given by nature." Analyse the statement.
3
21.
Distinguish between rural and urban marketing centres, giving examples.
3
22.
Why should India use non-conventional energy sources for sustainable development? Explain with examples.
3
23.
A table 'India – Trends of Urbanisation 1961–2011' gives:
Year | Towns/UAs | Urban population (thousands) | % of total population | Decennial growth (%)
1961 | 2,365 | 78,936.6 | 17.97 | 26.41
1971 | 2,590 | 1,09,114 | 19.91 | 38.23
1981 | 3,378 | 1,59,463 | 23.34 | 46.14
1991 | 4,689 | 2,17,611 | 25.71 | 36.47
2001 | 5,161 | 2,85,355 | 27.78 | 31.13
2011 | 6,171 | 3,77,000 | 31.16 | 31.08
(23.1) In which census year was the decennial growth of urban population the highest?
(23.2) Explain the rising trend of urban population in India.
(23.3) Analyse the steady rise in the number of towns in India.
3

SECTION D

Q24–28 are long-answer questions of 5 marks each. (5 × 5 = 25)
24.
Define immigration and emigration. Analyse the Demographic Transition Theory. (2 + 3)
5
25.
"Transport cost plays an important role in deciding where industries are located." Justify with examples.
OR
"Dairy farming is mainly carried on near urban and industrial centres." Justify with examples.
5
26.
Explain 'target area planning'. Analyse why target area planning was needed for development. (1 + 4)
OR
Explain 'regional planning'. Assess the results of the Integrated Tribal Development Project in the Bharmaur region. (1 + 4)
5
27.
"Indian Railways have helped move both goods and passengers and have added to economic growth." Support with suitable arguments.
OR
"Indian ports have kept growing to support successful international trade." Support with suitable arguments.
5
28.
Evaluate the National Youth Policy of India for the all-round development of youth and adolescents.
OR
Suggest measures for the all-round development of youth and adolescents in India.
5

SECTION E

Q29 and Q30 are map-based questions of 5 marks each. (2 × 5 = 10)
29.
On a political outline map of the world, seven features are marked A–G. Identify any five:
A. A major sea port – marked at the southern tip of Africa.
B. A major airport – marked on the northern coast of Australia.
C. An inland waterway – marked across the narrow isthmus joining North and South America.
D. A major area of nomadic herding – a shaded area in south-west Asia between the Red Sea and the Persian Gulf.
E. A major area of commercial livestock rearing – a dotted area in south-east South America.
F. A major area of extensive commercial grain farming – marked in south-eastern Australia.
G. A major area of mixed farming – marked in the eastern part of North America.
5
30.
On a political outline map of India, locate and label any five of these:
30.1 The state with the lowest population density (2011)
30.2 The leading sugarcane-producing state
30.3 A major sea port in Gujarat
30.4 A copper mining centre in Jharkhand
30.5 A manganese mining centre in Madhya Pradesh
30.6 An iron-ore mining centre in Maharashtra
30.7 An international airport in Karnataka
5
— END —
Questions restated from the CBSE Class XII Board Examination 2025 (set 64/1/1) for practice. Reading passages and map items are described, not reproduced.