Class 12 Board PrepGen SkyTech Educational Services
Political Science · 2026 · with answers All years Hide answers Download PDF PDF with answers
Roll No.
Q.P. Code 59/1/1

Political Science

CBSE Class XII Board Examination 2026 — with answers

Time allowed: 3 hoursMaximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

  1. The paper has 30 questions in five sections (A–E); all questions are compulsory.
  2. Section A: Q1–12 are multiple-choice questions of 1 mark each.
  3. Section B: Q13–18 are short-answer questions of 2 marks each; answer in about 50–60 words.
  4. Section C: Q19–23 are long-answer (Type I) questions of 4 marks each; answer in about 100–120 words.
  5. Section D: Q24–26 are passage-, cartoon- and map-based questions of 4 marks each.
  6. Section E: Q27–30 are long-answer (Type II) questions of 6 marks each; answer in about 170–180 words.
  7. There is no overall choice, but some questions have an internal choice; attempt only one alternative.

SECTION A

Q1–12 carry 1 mark each (12 × 1 = 12).
1.
Read the two statements about China and pick the correct option.
Statement I: China's economic policies helped its economy come out of stagnation.
Statement II: China's economic development also brought more environmental damage and corruption.
  1. (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
  2. (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  3. (C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
  4. (D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
Answer
(A) Both statements are true.
Statement I: after 1978 China's reforms (opening to trade and foreign investment, step-by-step privatisation, agricultural reforms) ended decades of stagnation and gave very high growth – true.
Statement II: the same rapid growth came with costs – rising pollution and environmental degradation, regional and rural-urban inequality, unemployment and corruption – true.
So both statements are correct.
1
2.
What led to the formation of the separate Andhra state in 1952?
  1. (A) The realisation that internal boundaries of Indian states had to be redrawn once colonial rule ended.
  2. (B) The Congress reorganising itself on linguistic lines after its 1920 Nagpur session.
  3. (C) The death of Congress leader Potti Sriramulu after a fast, which caused widespread unrest and made many Madras legislators resign in protest.
  4. (D) Tamil-speaking people of the old Madras province demanding a state based on language.
Answer
(C) The death of Potti Sriramulu and the unrest that followed.
Telugu speakers of the old Madras province demanded a separate Andhra state (Vishalandhra movement).
Potti Sriramulu, a Congress leader and Gandhian, went on an indefinite fast and died after 56 days.
His death caused violent protests across the Andhra region and many legislators resigned in protest.
The Prime Minister then announced the formation of a separate Andhra state in December 1952.
Option (D) is wrong: the demand came from Telugu speakers, not Tamil speakers.
1
3.
Which step did China take to overcome its economic crisis?
  1. (A) Like the USSR, China too adopted 'Shock Therapy'.
  2. (B) China ended its economic isolation by building relations with most developing countries of the world.
  3. (C) China opened its economy to privatisation gradually, step by step, to develop its economy.
  4. (D) China gave more importance to exports than to imports.
Answer
(C) Gradual, step-by-step opening and privatisation.
China did NOT follow shock therapy (that was the post-Soviet path) – it opened its economy in phases.
From 1978 (Deng Xiaoping) it allowed foreign trade and investment, created Special Economic Zones, privatised agriculture (1982) and then industry (1998) step by step.
This gradual approach is the key difference from Russia's sudden transition.
1
4.
The expression 'Aaya Ram, Gaya Ram' is linked with which state?
  1. (A) Uttar Pradesh
  2. (B) Madhya Pradesh
  3. (C) Haryana
  4. (D) Rajasthan
Answer
(C) Haryana
After the 1967 elections, frequent defections broke and made governments in many states.
In 1967 Gaya Lal, an MLA from Haryana, changed his party three times in a fortnight.
His name gave rise to the phrase 'Aaya Ram, Gaya Ram', now used for frequent floor-crossing by legislators.
1
5.
Assertion (A): Across the world, the old 'welfare state' is gaining more importance.
Reason (R): Because of globalisation, the state is withdrawing from many of its earlier welfare roles and the market has become the main decider of economic and social priorities.
  1. (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. (B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. (C) A is false, but R is true.
  4. (D) A is true, but R is false.
Answer
(C) A is false, but R is true.
One political effect of globalisation is the erosion of state capacity: the old welfare state is giving way to a minimalist state that performs only core functions such as law and order and security.
So the welfare state is losing importance, not gaining it – A is false.
R correctly describes this change (state withdraws from welfare, market sets priorities) – R is true.
1
6.
Which statement about the princely states is NOT correct?
  1. (A) Princely states were ruled by princes.
  2. (B) Every princely state agreed to become an integral part of India after British rule ended.
  3. (C) The princes accepted British supremacy and had some control over their internal affairs.
  4. (D) When British paramountcy ended, these states were legally free to join India or Pakistan or stay independent.
Answer
(B) – not all princely states agreed to join India.
Statements A, C and D describe the position correctly at independence.
B is wrong: several rulers resisted – Travancore and Hyderabad wanted independence, Junagadh tried to join Pakistan, Kashmir hesitated, and Manipur joined only after negotiation.
Most states signed the Instrument of Accession, but Hyderabad and Junagadh had to be integrated later by other means.
1
7.
Match List I with List II and choose the correct code.
List I: (a) Violation of human rights (b) 'Mad-cow' disease (c) Disarmament treaty (d) 9/11 terrorist attack
List II: (i) Britain (ii) Chemical Weapons Convention (iii) World Trade Centre in America (iv) Iraq's invasion of Kuwait
  1. (A) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
  2. (B) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
  3. (C) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
  4. (D) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
Answer
(A) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(a) Iraq's invasion of Kuwait (1990) is cited as a case of human-rights violation and aggression → (iv).
(b) The 'mad-cow' disease (BSE) epidemic broke out in Britain in the 1990s → (i).
(c) The Chemical Weapons Convention (1992) is a disarmament treaty → (ii).
(d) The 9/11 (2001) attack hit the World Trade Centre in New York → (iii).
1
8.
Put these events in chronological order:
(i) Assassination of former Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi
(ii) Formation of the first non-Congress coalition government at the Centre
(iii) Sixteenth Lok Sabha elections
(iv) Mandal Commission giving its recommendations
  1. (A) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
  2. (B) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii)
  3. (C) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
  4. (D) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
Answer
(C) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
(iv) Mandal Commission report – 1980.
(ii) Non-Congress coalition government at the Centre – the National Front government of V.P. Singh, 1989.
(i) Rajiv Gandhi assassinated – May 1991.
(iii) 16th Lok Sabha elections – 2014.
Order: (iv) → (ii) → (i) → (iii).
Tip: the Janata government of 1977 was the first non-Congress government, but it was formed by a single merged party; the coalition era at the Centre began in 1989 – that is the event this question places between 1980 and 1991.
1
9.
Which Prime Minister abolished the 'Privy Purse' of former princes?
  1. (A) Morarji Desai
  2. (B) Lal Bahadur Shastri
  3. (C) Rajiv Gandhi
  4. (D) Indira Gandhi
Answer
(D) Indira Gandhi
Privy purses were annual payments promised to former rulers at the time of integration.
Indira Gandhi made their abolition part of her radical, pro-poor agenda; after the 1971 election victory the 26th Constitutional Amendment (1971) ended them.
1
10.
Which statement best explains the idea of globalisation?
  1. (A) Rapid integration and inter-connection of countries through flows of goods, capital, people and ideas.
  2. (B) Globalisation has increased the capabilities of states in the political field.
  3. (C) Globalisation has given consumers freedom to choose from limited alternatives.
  4. (D) Globalisation has reduced employment opportunities for people.
Answer
(A) Integration of the world through flows of goods, capital, people and ideas.
Globalisation means flows – of ideas, capital, commodities and people – across the world, leading to greater inter-connectedness.
B, C and D are partial or debatable effects, not the definition (in fact it widens consumer choice).
1
11.
Which party's number of Lok Sabha seats kept rising continuously in the general elections from 2009 to 2019?
  1. (A) Indian National Congress (INC)
  2. (B) Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP)
  3. (C) Shiv Sena (SS)
  4. (D) Communist Party of India (CPI)
Answer
(B) BJP
BJP Lok Sabha seats: 116 (2009) → 282 (2014) → 303 (2019) – a continuous rise.
Congress fell from 206 (2009) to 44 (2014) and then 52 (2019); CPI declined.
1
12.
The Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) is concerned with:
  1. (A) Peaceful use of nuclear energy
  2. (B) Spread of nuclear weapons
  3. (C) Development of nuclear fusion
  4. (D) Reduction of nuclear weapons stockpiles
Answer
(D) Reduction of nuclear weapons stockpiles (as per the official answer key).
The NPT (1968) is an arms-control treaty: it aims to stop the spread (proliferation) of nuclear weapons to new countries; only states that tested before 1 January 1967 are recognised as nuclear-weapon states, and they are expected to work towards disarmament.
The CBSE marking scheme gives option (D), linking the treaty to limiting nuclear arsenals.
Note: the treaty's name itself refers to stopping the spread of weapons, so read such questions carefully; the board key accepted (D).
1

SECTION B

Q13–18 carry 2 marks each (6 × 2 = 12).
13.
State any two objectives for which the Planning Commission was set up.
Answer
Any two: planned development, poverty removal, industrialisation/modernisation, fair distribution of resources, preventing concentration of wealth.
The Planning Commission was set up in March 1950 by a simple resolution of the Government of India. Its objectives included:
1. Planned economic development – using the country's resources efficiently through Five Year Plans.
2. Removal of poverty and raising the standard of living of people.
3. Industrialisation and modernisation of the economy.
4. Distribution of material resources so as to serve the common good.
5. Preventing concentration of wealth and means of production in a few hands.
Any two, briefly explained, earn full marks.
2
14.
How does the natural isolation (insularity) of South Asia give the region its distinct culture? Explain.
Answer
Himalayas in the north and seas on three sides isolate the region, which shaped its own languages, social life and culture.
1. The Himalayas in the north and the Indian Ocean, Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal in the south, west and east form natural boundaries around the sub-continent.
2. This natural insularity kept the region relatively separate from outside areas for long periods.
3. As a result the region developed its own linguistic, social and cultural distinctiveness – many languages, festivals, customs and rituals that are shared across South Asia and make it distinct from neighbouring regions.
(The answer is assessed as a whole.)
2
15.
Explain any two human activities that are responsible for environmental degradation.
Answer
Any two: deforestation, over-use of resources, chemicals in farming, burning fossil fuels, pollution, industrialisation/urbanisation, population growth.
1. Deforestation – cutting forests for farmland, timber and cities destroys habitats, reduces biodiversity and adds to climate change.
2. Burning fossil fuels – coal, petrol and diesel in industry and transport release greenhouse gases and pollute air.
3. Chemical fertilisers and pesticides – degrade soil and pollute water bodies.
4. Over-exploitation of resources such as groundwater, fish stocks and minerals.
5. Rapid industrialisation and urbanisation, along with population growth, increase waste and pollution.
Any two explained = 2 marks.
2
16.
Why is globalisation called a multi-dimensional concept? Explain with examples.
Answer
It has political, economic and cultural dimensions – e.g. minimalist state (political), IMF/WTO shaping policies (economic), spread of uniform culture/new food and dress (cultural).
Globalisation is not only economic; it works in several fields at once:
1. Political – it can weaken state capacity: the old welfare state gives way to a minimalist state; at the same time technology helps states collect information about citizens.
2. Economic – flows of trade and investment increase; bodies like the IMF and WTO influence economic policies worldwide.
3. Cultural – it can lead to cultural homogenisation (spread of a dominant, mostly Western culture), but also widens choices in food, clothes, music and festivals.
Any two dimensions with an example each earn the marks.
2
17.
Describe any two challenges India faced while Lal Bahadur Shastri was Prime Minister.
Answer
Any two: economic strain after the 1962 China war, failed monsoons and drought, serious food crisis, the 1965 war with Pakistan.
Shastri was Prime Minister from 1964 to 1966. Challenges:
1. Economic difficulties left by the 1962 war with China and the cost of defence.
2. Failure of monsoons leading to drought.
3. A serious food shortage – India had to import food; Shastri asked people to skip a meal and gave the slogan 'Jai Jawan Jai Kisan'.
4. War with Pakistan in 1965, followed by the Tashkent Agreement (January 1966).
Any two = 2 marks.
2
18.
'The regional demands raised in the 1980s turned out to be a step towards nation-building.' Support this with arguments.
Answer
India handled regional demands democratically through talks and accords (Punjab Accord, Assam Accord, Mizo Accord), which strengthened national integration.
1. India did not treat regional aspirations as anti-national; it followed a democratic approach of negotiation and accommodation.
2. Examples: the Punjab problem led to the Rajiv Gandhi–Longowal Accord (1985); the Assam movement against 'outsiders' ended with the Assam Accord (1985); the Mizo insurgency ended with the Mizo Accord (1986).
3. Accommodating such demands gave people a stake in the system and so strengthened national unity rather than weakening it.
2

SECTION C

Q19–23 carry 4 marks each (5 × 4 = 20).
19.
Highlight any two differences between the ideologies of the Socialist Party and the Communist Party of India (in the early years after independence).
Answer
Socialist Party: democratic socialism, peaceful/constitutional means, for workers and peasants against capitalists and landlords.
CPI: saw 1947 as not true freedom, initially backed violent uprising (Telangana), later gave up violence and joined the 1952 elections.
Socialist Party:
1. Believed in democratic socialism – bringing socialism through democratic, constitutional means.
2. Opposed capitalists and landlords and spoke for workers and peasants; criticised the Congress for favouring them.
Communist Party of India:
1. Thought the transfer of power in 1947 was not true independence.
2. Encouraged violent uprisings (e.g. Telangana); this failed to get mass support, so it gave up armed struggle and took part in the first general elections of 1952.
Two clear differences (each comparing both parties) = 2 + 2 marks.
4
20.
Highlight any two traditional means that countries can use to protect their national security.
Answer
Any two: deterrence/defence through military strength, balance of power, alliance building, disarmament, arms control, confidence-building measures.
In the traditional view security means protecting the state from military threats. Means:
1. Building military strength for deterrence and defence – a strong army discourages attack, and war is the last resort.
2. Balance of power – a country keeps a balance with potential rivals by building its own power and economic strength.
3. Alliance building – states join coalitions (e.g. NATO) to deter or fight an attack together.
4. Disarmament and arms control – treaties such as the BWC, CWC, SALT and NPT limit dangerous weapons.
5. Confidence-building measures – sharing military information and plans to avoid war by misunderstanding.
Any two explained = 4 marks.
4
21.
Describe any four global initiatives that were taken to spread awareness about protecting the environment.
Answer
Club of Rome's 'Limits to Growth' (1972); UNEP conferences and studies; Brundtland Report 'Our Common Future' (1987); Earth Summit, Rio (1992) with Agenda 21; also Kyoto Protocol (1997).
1. 1972 – the Club of Rome published 'Limits to Growth', warning that rising population and resource use would exhaust the earth's resources.
2. The UN Environment Programme (UNEP) and other agencies organised international conferences and studies to get a coordinated response to environmental problems.
3. 1987 – the Brundtland Report 'Our Common Future' warned that traditional patterns of development were not sustainable.
4. 1992 – the UN Conference on Environment and Development (Earth Summit) in Rio de Janeiro produced conventions on climate change, biodiversity and forestry and adopted Agenda 21 for sustainable development.
5. 1997 – the Kyoto Protocol set targets for industrialised countries to cut greenhouse gas emissions.
Any four = 4 marks.
4
22.
'India accepted the expression of regional aspirations in a way that strengthened national integrity.' Support the statement with two examples.
Answer
New states created to meet regional demands (Haryana, Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand, Jharkhand); regional groups like AASU and MNF allowed to pursue demands democratically and settled through accords.
India followed a democratic approach – regional demands were not seen as anti-national.
1. Creation of new states: Haryana (1966) and Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand and Jharkhand (2000) were carved out of their parent states to meet regional aspirations, and this strengthened people's attachment to the nation.
2. Regional parties and movements were allowed to work within the democratic system – e.g. AASU in Assam and the Mizo National Front in Mizoram; their demands were settled through the Assam Accord (1985) and Mizo Accord (1986), and the MNF even formed the government.
3. Movements in Nagaland, Meghalaya etc. were handled through negotiation and deliberation.
Any two examples, explained = 2 × 2 marks.
OR
Was the Assam Accord successful in bringing peace and stability to Assam? Give two arguments for your view.
Answer
Either view. Yes: 1985 accord (Rajiv Gandhi–AASU) agreed to detect and deport post-1971 migrants; AGP formed government; agitation ended. No: immigration problem not solved; 'outsider' issue still alive; locals feel reduced to a minority.
Marks are for a clear stand supported by two arguments.
If YES:
1. In 1985 the Rajiv Gandhi government signed an accord with AASU leaders; foreigners who had migrated into Assam during and after the Bangladesh war were to be identified and deported.
2. The six-year agitation ended; AASU and the Asom Gana Sangram Parishad formed the Asom Gana Parishad (AGP), which won power in 1985 promising to solve the foreigners issue and build a 'Golden Assam' – the movement entered democratic politics.
If NO:
1. The immigration problem was not actually solved.
2. The issue of 'outsiders' remains a live issue in Assam's politics, and many local communities feel they have become a minority in their own land.
4
23.
Analyse the 'ASEAN Way' as a special method of promoting peace among South-east Asian countries.
Answer
ASEAN Way = informal, non-confrontational, cooperative interaction respecting sovereignty; disputes settled by talks (Cambodia conflict, East Timor); ARF (1994) for security and foreign-policy coordination.
1. Meaning: the 'ASEAN Way' is a form of interaction that is informal, non-confrontational and cooperative, and respects national sovereignty and non-interference.
2. Members settle disputes through dialogue and negotiation rather than force; ASEAN helped end the Cambodian conflict and handle the East Timor crisis.
3. Through this method ASEAN promotes peace, cooperation and economic growth; the ASEAN Regional Forum (1994) coordinates security and foreign policy.
Meaning + two examples/explanations = 4 marks.
OR
Assess how the ASEAN Security Community contributed to ASEAN's economic progress.
Answer
Based on the idea that territorial disputes must not become armed conflict; agreements by 2003 on peace, neutrality, non-interference; ARF (1994); this stability allowed fast growth and moves toward an FTA for investment, labour and services.
1. The ASEAN Security Community rests on the belief that unresolved territorial disputes should not escalate into armed confrontation.
2. By 2003 ASEAN members had several agreements promising peace, neutrality, cooperation, non-interference and respect for each other's sovereignty.
3. The ASEAN Regional Forum (1994) coordinates security and foreign policy.
4. This peaceful environment allowed the region's economy to grow faster than many others, and ASEAN could focus on creating a Free Trade Area for investment, labour and services; the US and China moved quickly to negotiate FTAs with it.
Any two well-explained points = 4 marks.
4

SECTION D

Passage, cartoon and map based questions. Q24–26 carry 4 marks each (3 × 4 = 12).
24.
Read the passage (summarised here) and answer the questions. The passage says SAARC was started in 1985 by South Asian countries to cooperate through multilateral means, but political differences among members have limited its success. In 2002 its members signed SAFTA, promising a free trade zone for the whole region.
(i) Which South Asian country was NOT a founder member of SAARC? (A) Nepal (B) Bhutan (C) Afghanistan (D) Bangladesh
(ii) Which outside power influences South Asian countries the most? (A) USA (B) Russia (C) France (D) Britain
(iii) The main aim of SAARC is: (A) to become a new centre of world power (B) to set up a common currency for its development (C) to settle all regional conflicts without outside interference (D) to help members cooperate for economic growth, social progress and cultural development through multilateral means
(iv) Which of these is NOT a core aim of SAFTA? (A) a common currency for SAARC nations (B) promoting mutual trade and economic cooperation (C) reducing customs duties and non-tariff barriers (D) creating a free trade area among members
Answer
(i) (C) Afghanistan (ii) (A) USA (iii) (D) (iv) (A) a common currency
(i) SAARC's seven founders (1985): India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, Nepal, Bhutan, Maldives. Afghanistan joined later (2007) – (C).
(ii) After the Cold War the USA became the most influential external actor in South Asia, with close ties to both India and Pakistan – (A).
(iii) SAARC aims at cooperation among members for economic, social and cultural development through multilateral means – (D).
(iv) SAFTA is about lowering trade barriers and creating a free trade area; a common currency is not one of its aims – (A).
4
25.
The cartoon shows a richly dressed prince sitting on the back of a thin, poor man who is down on all fours and is labelled 'States People'. The prince holds a box labelled 'External Affairs, Defence, Communication'. A leader in a dhoti and shawl (labelled with his name) walks up to him, smiling, and says: 'No, no, don't get up, Your Highness. Just give me this, that will do.'
(i) Name the leader talking to the prince. (1)
(ii) What does the prince sitting on the poor man's back indicate? (1)
(iii) What message does the cartoon convey? (2)
Answer
(i) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(ii) The rulers of princely states oppressed and exploited their ordinary subjects.
(iii) Patel got the princes to sign the Instrument of Accession (giving India defence, external affairs and communications), uniting the country while leaving the rulers in place for the time being.
(i) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel – Deputy PM and Home Minister, who led the integration of princely states.
(ii) The poor man labelled 'States People' carrying the prince shows that ordinary people in the princely states were exploited and suppressed by their rulers.
(iii) The 'box' the leader asks for stands for the three subjects in the Instrument of Accession – defence, external affairs and communications. Patel, by persuasion and diplomacy, got almost all rulers to hand over these subjects; this brought the states into the Indian Union peacefully and helped unify the country. (The cartoon also hints that at first the princes kept their privileges while the people's condition stayed the same.)
4
26.
On a political outline map of India four states are marked: A – a large state in north-central India; B – a state on the west coast with the Kathiawar peninsula; C – a small state north-west of Delhi; D – a state in the east, along the Ganga plain bordering Nepal. Identify them using the clues and write serial number, letter and name:
(i) The state linked with the 1974 student movement against price rise and corruption.
(ii) The state linked with farmers' leader Chaudhary Charan Singh.
(iii) The state linked with Congress leader Jagjivan Ram.
(iv) The state where the Congress did not win a single Lok Sabha seat in the 1977 elections.
Answer
(i) B – Gujarat
(ii) A – Uttar Pradesh
(iii) D – Bihar
(iv) C – Haryana
(i) The Navnirman student movement against price rise and corruption began in Gujarat in January 1974 (followed by Bihar in March 1974) – B, Gujarat (answer key).
(ii) Chaudhary Charan Singh, the farmers' leader and later Prime Minister, came from western Uttar Pradesh – A.
(iii) Jagjivan Ram, senior Congress (later Congress for Democracy) leader, was from Bihar – D.
(iv) In 1977 the Congress was wiped out in north India; it won no Lok Sabha seat in states such as Bihar, UP, Punjab, Haryana and Delhi – the marked small state north-west of Delhi is Haryana – C.
4

SECTION E

Q27–30 carry 6 marks each (4 × 6 = 24).
27.
Explain the composition and one function each of any three principal organs of the United Nations.
Answer
General Assembly – all 193 members, one vote each; budget, elects non-permanent UNSC members, appoints Secretary-General (on UNSC recommendation).
Security Council – 15 members (5 permanent with veto + 10 elected for 2 years); maintains peace, can authorise action.
ICJ – 15 judges, 9-year terms, at The Hague; settles legal disputes, gives advisory opinions.
Secretariat – headed by Secretary-General (5-year term); runs day-to-day work.
ECOSOC – 54 members elected for 3 years; coordinates economic and social work.
Any three organs, each with composition (1) and a function (1):
1. General Assembly: all 193 member states, each with one vote; important decisions need a two-thirds majority and its resolutions are generally not binding. Functions – approves the UN budget, elects non-permanent members of the Security Council, appoints the Secretary-General on the Council's recommendation.
2. Security Council: 15 members – 5 permanent (USA, UK, France, Russia, China) with veto power and 10 non-permanent members elected for two years. Its decisions bind all members; it investigates disputes and can authorise sanctions or military action to maintain peace.
3. International Court of Justice: 15 judges elected for 9 years by the General Assembly and Security Council; seated at The Hague (Netherlands). It settles legal disputes between states and gives advisory opinions.
4. Secretariat: the administrative arm, headed by the Secretary-General appointed for 5 years; carries out day-to-day work, implements decisions and organises conferences.
5. Economic and Social Council: 54 members elected by the General Assembly for three-year terms on a geographical basis; coordinates economic, social and environmental work and promotes sustainable development.
OR
Name any three specialised agencies of the United Nations and explain one function of each.
Answer
Any three: WHO – health, fights epidemics, vaccination; UNICEF – child welfare; UNESCO – education, science, culture, heritage; ILO – labour standards; IAEA – peaceful use of nuclear energy; UNHRC – human rights.
1. WHO (World Health Organisation): works for good health worldwide and against the spread of epidemics, e.g. vaccination drives.
2. UNICEF: works for the welfare and rights of children – health, nutrition, education and safety.
3. UNESCO: promotes education, science and culture, protects world heritage sites and freedom of expression.
4. ILO (International Labour Organisation): sets international labour standards and promotes decent work and social protection.
5. IAEA (International Atomic Energy Agency): promotes the peaceful use of nuclear energy and prevents its use for military purposes; encourages technical cooperation in the nuclear field.
6. UN Human Rights Council: protects human rights and deals with violations around the world.
Name (1) + function (1) for three agencies = 6 marks.
6
28.
Analyse any three reasons for the break-up of the Soviet Union.
Answer
1. Political system became bureaucratic and authoritarian; one-party rule, no freedom, people's aspirations unmet.
2. Economic stagnation and huge spending on arms and on satellite states → shortages.
3. Gorbachev's reforms (perestroika, glasnost) raised expectations, people saw the gap with the West; party members resisted.
4. Rise of nationalism and the desire for sovereignty in republics – the immediate cause.
1. Internal weaknesses of the political system: the Soviet system became highly bureaucratic and authoritarian; one-party rule by the Communist Party allowed no free speech or accountability, so it could not meet people's aspirations.
2. Economic stagnation: the USSR spent huge amounts on nuclear and military arms and on supporting its satellite states in Eastern Europe; years of stagnation led to severe shortages of consumer goods. As people learnt about the West's advance, they felt the gap sharply.
3. Gorbachev's reforms: perestroika (restructuring) and glasnost (openness) were meant to reform the system, but they unleashed forces that could not be controlled – people wanted faster change, while party members felt they were losing power and privileges.
4. Nationalism: the rise of nationalism and desire for sovereignty in republics such as Russia, the Baltic states and Ukraine was the most immediate cause of the collapse in 1991.
Any three, analysed = 2 × 3 marks.
OR
Examine any three consequences of 'Shock Therapy' in the former Soviet states.
Answer
Any three: economies ruined and people faced hardship; 'largest garage sale in history' – state industries sold cheaply, many collapsed; rouble's value crashed and high inflation wiped out savings; collective farms collapsed – no food security; welfare system and subsidies ended → poverty; rich–poor divide and weak democratic institutions.
Shock therapy = a sudden, complete switch from communism to a capitalist economy, backed by the World Bank and IMF.
Consequences:
1. It ruined the economies of the region and brought disaster on the people.
2. About 90% of industries were sold to private buyers at very low prices – the 'largest garage sale in history'; much of the state-controlled industrial complex collapsed.
3. The value of the rouble fell dramatically and very high inflation wiped out people's savings.
4. The collective farm system broke down, ending food security.
5. Government subsidies and the old social welfare system were withdrawn, pushing large sections into poverty; a mafia and a new rich class emerged, and inequality between rich and poor (and between regions) grew.
Any three, explained = 6 marks.
6
29.
'India's foreign policy has succeeded in protecting its national interests.' Support this with three arguments.
Answer
1. Non-alignment let India keep an independent foreign policy and its sovereignty.
2. India got help from both blocs (aid, technology, support) without joining either.
3. Peaceful, friendly relations with many neighbours (Nepal, Bhutan, Sri Lanka) and a respected role through Panchsheel, UN support and disarmament.
1. Independent policy through NAM: by staying out of the two Cold War blocs, India could take decisions on each issue on merit and protect its sovereignty.
2. Support from both sides: India received economic aid and technology from the USA and the USSR alike (e.g. Soviet help for heavy industry, US food aid), serving its development needs.
3. Principles of Panchsheel, respect for the UN and disarmament gave India international standing and leadership among newly independent nations (Afro-Asian unity, Bandung, NAM).
4. Good relations with neighbours such as Nepal, Bhutan and Sri Lanka, and later the Indo-Soviet Treaty of 1971, helped India secure its interests (e.g. in the 1971 war).
Any three explained = 6 marks.
OR
'India's foreign policy follows the principles of international peace and security set out in Article 51 of the Constitution.' Justify with three examples.
Answer
Article 51 (Directive Principle): promote international peace and security; just and honourable relations between nations; respect for international law; settlement of disputes by arbitration. Examples – nuclear policy for peaceful use and no-first-use, treaties with Pakistan/China (Panchsheel, Tashkent, Simla), UN peacekeeping and IPKF in Sri Lanka, cooperation against terrorism and climate change.
Article 51 asks the State to promote international peace and security, maintain just and honourable relations between nations, respect international law and treaties, and encourage settlement of disputes by arbitration.
1. Promoting peace and security: India's nuclear programme is described as for peaceful purposes with a no-first-use doctrine; India cooperates with other countries against terrorism and global warming.
2. Just and honourable relations: India signed agreements with neighbours – Panchsheel (1954) with China, Tashkent (1966) and Simla (1972) with Pakistan.
3. Peaceful settlement of disputes: India has contributed troops to UN peacekeeping missions and sent the IPKF to Sri Lanka (1987) to help resolve the ethnic conflict.
Any three with examples = 6 marks.
6
30.
Describe any four factors that led to the rise of coalition governments at the Centre after 1989.
Answer
1. Decline of the Congress – no party could win a clear majority.
2. Rise of regional parties winning many Lok Sabha seats.
3. Regional movements and OBC/Mandal politics fragmented the vote.
4. Parties formed alliances to provide a stable government and avoid mid-term polls.
1. Decline of the Congress: after the 1989 elections the Congress lost its dominant position and no single party got a clear majority (until 2014).
2. Rise of regional parties: since the 1980s regional movements and parties grew strong in many states and won sizeable numbers of Lok Sabha seats.
3. New social forces: the Mandal issue and the rise of OBC-based and Dalit parties split the vote further.
4. Need for stability: national parties had to ally with regional parties to form a government and to avoid political instability and frequent elections – e.g. National Front (1989), United Front (1996), NDA (1998–2004), UPA (2004–14).
Any four described = 6 marks (1½ each).
OR
Describe any four issues on which most political parties have come to a broad agreement (the emerging consensus).
Answer
1. New economic policies (liberalisation).
2. Political and social claims of backward classes (e.g. OBC reservation).
3. Role of state-level parties in national governance.
4. Pragmatism over ideology; alliances without ideological agreement.
1. Agreement on new economic policies: most parties accept liberalisation and globalisation as the way to prosperity, though some differ on details.
2. Acceptance of the claims of backward castes: all parties accept the social and political claims of OBCs and support reservation in education and jobs.
3. Acceptance of the role of state-level parties: the line between regional and national parties has blurred, and regional parties now share power at the Centre.
4. Emphasis on pragmatic considerations: parties form alliances to share power without full ideological agreement (e.g. NDA, UPA).
Four issues described = 6 marks.
6
— END —
Questions restated from the CBSE Class XII Board Examination 2026 (set 59/1/1) for practice. Reading passages and map items are described, not reproduced.