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Roll No.
Q.P. Code 59/1/1

Political Science

CBSE Class XII Board Examination 2024 — with answers

Time allowed: 3 hoursMaximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

  1. The paper has 30 questions in five sections (A to E); all of them must be answered.
  2. Section A: Q1–12, multiple choice (including Assertion-Reason), 1 mark each.
  3. Section B: Q13–18, short answer, 2 marks each (about 50–60 words).
  4. Section C: Q19–23, long answer type I, 4 marks each (about 100–120 words).
  5. Section D: Q24–26, passage, map and cartoon based questions, 4 marks each.
  6. Section E: Q27–30, long answer type II, 6 marks each (about 170–180 words).
  7. There is no overall choice, but some questions offer an internal choice (OR); attempt only one of the choices.

SECTION A

Q1–12 are multiple choice questions of 1 mark each.
1.
The style of interaction among member states known as the 'ASEAN Way' is best described as ________.
  1. (A) formal
  2. (B) confrontationist
  3. (C) cooperative
  4. (D) provocative
Answer
(C) cooperative
The 'ASEAN Way' is the working style of ASEAN: informal, non-confrontational and cooperative.
Members prefer consultation and consensus over binding rules and supranational bodies.
Common mistake: choosing 'formal' – the ASEAN Way is deliberately informal.
1
2.
Which of these countries was NOT one of the founding members of ASEAN?
  1. (A) Singapore
  2. (B) Thailand
  3. (C) Myanmar
  4. (D) Indonesia
Answer
(C) Myanmar
ASEAN was set up in 1967 by the Bangkok Declaration signed by five countries: Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore and Thailand.
Myanmar joined much later (1997), so it is not a founder member.
1
3.
Which one of the following countries is NOT counted as part of 'South Asia'?
  1. (A) Bangladesh
  2. (B) China
  3. (C) Bhutan
  4. (D) Maldives
Answer
(B) China
South Asia usually means Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, the Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka (Afghanistan and Myanmar are sometimes included).
China is an important neighbour but is not a part of South Asia.
1
4.
Put these rulers of Pakistan in the order in which they ruled (earliest first):
(i) General Zia-ul-Haq
(ii) Benazir Bhutto
(iii) General Musharraf
(iv) Zulfikar Ali Bhutto
  1. (A) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)
  2. (B) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
  3. (C) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
  4. (D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Answer
(A) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)
Zulfikar Ali Bhutto – civilian ruler from 1971 till he was removed in 1977.
General Zia-ul-Haq – military rule 1977–1988.
Benazir Bhutto – elected Prime Minister from 1988.
General Pervez Musharraf – took power in a coup in 1999.
So the order is (iv), (i), (ii), (iii).
1
5.
Which of the following is NOT regarded as a 'new source' of threat to security?
  1. (A) Terrorism
  2. (B) Hijacking of planes
  3. (C) Use of drones
  4. (D) War
Answer
(D) War
War between states is the classic concern of the traditional notion of security.
Terrorism, hijacking of aircraft and the use of drones are newer, non-traditional threats.
So 'war' is not a new source of threat.
1
6.
Assertion (A): An alliance is a grouping of states that act together to deter or defend themselves against a military attack.
Reason (R): States enter alliances to raise their effective power compared with another country or alliance.
  1. (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (C) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
  4. (D) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
Answer
(A) Both true; R correctly explains A
Alliance building is one of the components of traditional security policy: a coalition of states that coordinates action against military attack – so A is true.
The purpose of forming such alliances is to increase effective power relative to a rival state or bloc – so R is true and it explains why alliances are made.
Note: in this paper's option order, option (C) and (D) are swapped compared with many other papers – read the options carefully.
1
7.
Why were India–US relations quite uneasy during the 1950s?
  1. (A) India had a growing partnership with the Soviet Union.
  2. (B) The Soviet Union invaded Hungary.
  3. (C) India was not a member of NATO.
  4. (D) India was a founder member of NAM.
Answer
(A) India's growing partnership with the Soviet Union
In the 1950s the US was building military alliances against the USSR. India followed non-alignment but drew closer to the Soviet Union (economic and diplomatic ties), which created unease in Washington.
The invasion of Hungary (1956) was a Soviet action and not the reason for Indo-US unease; NAM was founded only in 1961.
1
8.
Which of the following was NOT one of the main aims of Jawaharlal Nehru's foreign policy?
  1. (A) To preserve the hard-earned sovereignty of India.
  2. (B) To protect the territorial integrity of India.
  3. (C) To make India a nuclear power.
  4. (D) To promote rapid economic development.
Answer
(C) To make India a nuclear power
Nehru's three major objectives: preserve hard-earned sovereignty, protect territorial integrity and promote rapid economic development – pursued through non-alignment.
Nehru opposed nuclear weapons and argued for disarmament; India's nuclear tests came much later (1974, 1998).
1
9.
Pick the FALSE statement about Lal Bahadur Shastri.
  1. (A) He served as General Secretary of the Congress Party until 1966.
  2. (B) He was a member of the Union Cabinet for a short spell of only three years.
  3. (C) He quit the Union Cabinet, owning responsibility for a railway accident.
  4. (D) He coined the well-known slogan 'Jai Jawan Jai Kisan'.
Answer
(A) – the official marking scheme accepted (A) or (B)
Facts: Shastri was Prime Minister from 1964 till his death in January 1966, so he could not have been Congress General Secretary 'till 1966' – (A) is false.
He was a Union minister from 1951 to 1956 and again from 1957 to 1964 – much longer than three years, so (B) is also incorrect.
He resigned in 1956 taking responsibility for a railway accident – (C) true. He gave the slogan 'Jai Jawan Jai Kisan' – (D) true.
Because both (A) and (B) are wrong, CBSE gave the mark for either (A) or (B).
1
10.
Which problems was India facing just before the fourth general elections (1967)?
(i) Failure of the monsoon
(ii) Food crisis
(iii) Heavy rainfall
(iv) Fall in foreign exchange reserves
  1. (A) (i), (ii)
  2. (B) (iii), (iv)
  3. (C) (i), (ii), (iv)
  4. (D) (ii), (iii), (iv)
Answer
(C) (i), (ii), (iv)
The years before 1967 saw two successive monsoon failures and drought, a serious food shortage, a sharp drop in foreign exchange reserves, a fall in industrial output and rising prices (plus devaluation of the rupee).
'Heavy rainfall' is the opposite of what happened, so (iii) is wrong.
1
11.
Put these Prime Ministers of India in the order in which they held office (earliest first):
(i) H.D. Deve Gowda
(ii) Chandra Shekhar
(iii) P.V. Narasimha Rao
(iv) V.P. Singh
  1. (A) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
  2. (B) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)
  3. (C) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
  4. (D) (iv), (ii), (iii), (i)
Answer
(D) (iv), (ii), (iii), (i)
V.P. Singh – Dec 1989 to Nov 1990 (National Front).
Chandra Shekhar – Nov 1990 to June 1991.
P.V. Narasimha Rao – 1991 to 1996 (Congress).
H.D. Deve Gowda – June 1996 to April 1997 (United Front).
Order: (iv), (ii), (iii), (i).
1
12.
Match List-I with List-II.
List-I: 1. Clear majority in the 17th Lok Sabha; 2. Implementing the Mandal Commission recommendations; 3. Prime Minister H.D. Deve Gowda; 4. Prime Minister Manmohan Singh
List-II: (i) National Front Government; (ii) United Front Government; (iii) United Progressive Alliance Government; (iv) National Democratic Alliance
  1. (A) 1-(iv), 2-(i), 3-(ii), 4-(iii)
  2. (B) 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iii), 4-(iv)
  3. (C) 1-(iv), 2-(iii), 3-(ii), 4-(i)
  4. (D) 1-(i), 2-(iv), 3-(ii), 4-(iii)
Answer
(A) 1-(iv), 2-(i), 3-(ii), 4-(iii)
1. The 2019 elections (17th Lok Sabha) gave the BJP-led NDA a clear majority → (iv).
2. The National Front government of V.P. Singh decided in 1990 to implement the Mandal recommendations → (i).
3. Deve Gowda headed the United Front government (1996–97) → (ii).
4. Manmohan Singh led the UPA governments (2004–2014) → (iii).
1

SECTION B

Q13–18 are short answer questions of 2 marks each.
13.
Explain any two factors that have prevented Pakistan from building a stable democracy.
Answer
Dominance of the army, clergy and landed aristocracy; conflict with India strengthening pro-military groups; lack of real international support for democracy (any two).
(i) Social dominance of the military, the clergy and the land-owning aristocracy has repeatedly led to the overthrow of elected governments.
(ii) Pakistan's conflict with India has made pro-military groups more powerful; they argue that politicians are selfish and that the country's security is safe only with the army.
(iii) Lack of genuine international support: the US and other Western powers backed military regimes for their own strategic interests (fight against communism/terrorism).
Any two points with a line of explanation each = 1 + 1.
2
14.
Point out any two features of the Constitution of Bangladesh.
Answer
It declared faith in secularism, democracy and socialism (any two).
Bangladesh framed its Constitution after independence in 1971 under Sheikh Mujib-ur Rahman.
It stated faith in: (i) secularism, (ii) democracy, (iii) socialism.
Any two = 1 + 1.
(Later, in 1975, the Constitution was amended to a presidential form and only one party – the Awami League – was allowed, but the original features are the expected answer.)
2
15.
Give any two benefits of having international organisations such as the United Nations.
Answer
They help on questions of war and peace, and help countries cooperate to create better living conditions for all.
(i) They help in matters of war and peace – they provide a forum where disputes can be discussed and settled without fighting.
(ii) They help countries cooperate to make better living conditions for all – e.g. on health, development, environment.
Other valid points: they bring information and ideas together, help in collective action on global problems (epidemics, climate change), and make it easier for small states to be heard.
Any two = 1 + 1.
2
16.
Name the chief architect of the Second Five Year Plan. What was the main emphasis of this Plan?
Answer
P.C. Mahalanobis; emphasis on heavy industries (rapid industrialisation).
(i) The Second Five Year Plan (1956–61) was drafted under the leadership of the statistician P.C. Mahalanobis – 1 mark.
(ii) It stressed heavy industrialisation – building heavy and basic industries, mostly in the public sector, with protective tariffs for domestic industry – 1 mark.
Compare: the First Plan stressed agriculture.
2
17.
What does the term 'defection' mean in politics?
Answer
When an elected representative leaves the party on whose symbol he/she was elected and joins another party.
Defection means that a legislator who won the election on one party's symbol abandons that party and joins another party.
After 1967, frequent defections ('Aya Ram, Gaya Ram') made state governments unstable; later the Anti-Defection Law (52nd Amendment, 1985) was passed to check it.
A clear definition earns the 2 marks.
2
18.
Explain any two ways in which Indian politics after 2014 differed from the period 1989–2014.
Answer
After 2014 one party (BJP) won a clear majority on its own, unlike the coalition era of 1989–2014; regional parties still stayed in power at the Centre as partners despite a single-party majority.
(i) Majority: between 1989 and 2014 no single party won a majority in the Lok Sabha, so coalition governments ruled. In 2014 (and 2019) the BJP alone won a clear majority.
(ii) Role of regional parties: in 1989–2014 regional parties were crucial for forming the government at the Centre. After 2014, even with a single-party majority, regional parties continued to share power as NDA partners – so the coalition practice continued in a new form.
1 + 1.
2

SECTION C

Q19–23 are long answer type I questions of 4 marks each.
19.
Assess the economic importance of the European Union.
Answer
World's second largest economy after the USA; larger share of world trade than the USA; economic power gives influence over neighbours and in Asia and Africa; acts as an important bloc in bodies like the WTO; the euro challenges the dollar.
Any two points well explained (2 + 2):
(i) Size: the EU is the world's second largest economy, next only to the USA (GDP above $17 trillion in 2016).
(ii) Trade: its share of world trade is much larger than that of the United States.
(iii) Influence: its economic power gives it influence over its closest neighbours and also in Asia and Africa.
(iv) Bargaining power: it works as an important bloc in international economic organisations such as the WTO.
(v) Currency: the euro can pose a challenge to the dominance of the US dollar.
OR
Using examples, analyse the role of the European Union as a supranational organisation.
Answer
Has its own flag, anthem, founding date and currency; some common foreign and security policy; can intervene in economic, political and social areas; but members often differ on foreign/defence policy (e.g. Britain backed the US in Iraq while Germany and France opposed it).
Two points with examples (2 + 2):
(i) Symbols of a state: the EU has its own flag, anthem, founding date and a common currency (euro).
(ii) It has a kind of common foreign and security policy in dealing with other nations.
(iii) As a supranational body it can intervene in economic, political and social matters of member states.
(iv) Limits: in many areas members keep their own foreign and defence policies, which often clash. Example: British PM Tony Blair joined the US in the 2003 invasion of Iraq, and many newer EU members joined the US-led 'coalition of the willing', while Germany and France opposed the American policy.
4
20.
Describe any four criteria that were suggested in 1997 for choosing new permanent and non-permanent members of the UN Security Council.
Answer
A new member should be: a major economic power; a major military power; a substantial contributor to the UN budget; a big nation in terms of population; a democracy that respects human rights (also representation of geography, economic systems, culture).
Proposals discussed from 1997 said a new member should be:
(i) a major economic power;
(ii) a major military power;
(iii) a substantial contributor to the UN budget;
(iv) a big nation in terms of population;
(v) a nation that respects democracy and human rights;
(vi) a country that would make the Council more representative of the world's diversity in geography, economic systems and culture.
Any four × 1 = 4.
4
21.
State the primary goal of human security. Also explain how the narrow concept of human security differs from the broad concept.
Answer
Primary goal: protection of individuals (not just states). Narrow concept: protection from violent threats/internal violence. Broad concept: also includes hunger, disease, natural disasters, economic security and threats to human dignity.
(i) Primary goal (1 mark): human security puts the protection of people/individuals at the centre, rather than only the protection of state territory.
(ii) Narrow concept (1½): it focuses on violent threats to individuals – protecting people and communities from internal violence such as civil war, genocide, terrorism.
(iii) Broad concept (1½): supporters argue the threat agenda must also include hunger, disease and natural disasters, because these kill far more people than wars; in its widest form it covers economic security and 'threats to human dignity' – 'freedom from want' and 'freedom from fear'.
OR
Explain the security challenges faced by the newly independent countries of Asia and Africa.
Answer
Possible wars with neighbours; internal military conflicts; fear of neighbours more than of superpowers/ex-colonial powers; border and territory disputes; separatist movements; external and internal threats combining (neighbour backing internal rebels).
Any two points explained (2 + 2):
(i) They faced the prospect of military conflict with neighbouring countries.
(ii) They also had to worry about internal military conflict (e.g. in Pakistan, Bangladesh).
(iii) Many feared their neighbours more than the US, the USSR or the former colonial power.
(iv) They quarrelled over borders, territory and control of people/populations.
(v) Separatist movements threatened to break them up and form new countries.
(vi) External and internal threats often merged, when a neighbour helped or instigated an internal separatist movement.
4
22.
Bearing in mind how important politics is in a democracy, what path did our national leaders choose for newly independent India? Explain any two points.
Answer
They chose the path of democratic politics – they saw politics not as a problem but as the way to solve problems; differences among groups and policy alternatives were to be settled democratically in pursuit of the public interest.
Two points (2 + 2):
(i) Our leaders were fully aware of the critical role of politics; they did not treat politics as a problem but as a way of solving problems.
(ii) Every society must decide how it will govern and regulate itself; there are always different policy choices and groups with different, even conflicting, aspirations.
(iii) Democratic politics – competition for power through elections – was chosen as the way to resolve these differences.
(iv) Though competition and power are the visible parts of politics, its real purpose should be deciding and pursuing the public interest. This was the route the leaders took (hence the early commitment to elections, the Election Commission and universal adult franchise).
4
23.
Bring out the role played by Jawaharlal Nehru in shaping India's foreign policy.
Answer
As PM and foreign minister he set the agenda: preserve sovereignty, protect territorial integrity, promote rapid economic development, through the strategy of non-alignment (plus Afro-Asian unity, decolonisation, Panchsheel).
Nehru was Prime Minister and Foreign Minister from 1946/47 to 1964 and had a profound influence on foreign policy. His efforts aimed at:
(i) preserving India's hard-earned sovereignty;
(ii) protecting India's territorial integrity;
(iii) promoting rapid economic development;
(iv) achieving these through non-alignment – staying away from both Cold War blocs while keeping friendly ties with both.
Other points: support for decolonisation and Afro-Asian unity (Bandung Conference 1955), Panchsheel with China (1954), being a founder of NAM.
Four points × 1 = 4.
4

SECTION D

Q24–26 are passage, map and cartoon based questions of 4 marks each.
24.
Passage (summary): The passage says that globalisation has many dimensions – it is not only economic or only cultural – and that its effects differ from society to society, so one should not make sweeping claims about its impact without looking at the specific context.
(i) Which one is NOT a dimension of globalisation? (A) Political (B) Ethical (C) Cultural (D) Economic
(ii) Which statement about globalisation is NOT correct? (A) Technological advances greatly help the flow of ideas, capital, goods and people. (B) Globalisation affects the cultures of different countries. (C) It affects the whole world equally. (D) Major economic events have an impact felt globally.
(iii) Globalisation as a concept does NOT deal with: (A) flow of ideas (B) flow of capital (C) flow of rivers (D) flow of people
(iv) The impact of globalisation is vastly ________. (A) even (B) uneven (C) discriminatory (D) regional
Answer
(i) (B) Ethical (ii) (C) It affects the whole world equally (iii) (C) Flow of rivers (iv) (B) uneven
(i) The three standard dimensions are political, economic and cultural; 'ethical' is not one of them → (B).
(ii) The passage itself says globalisation affects some societies more than others, so 'affects the whole world equally' is wrong → (C).
(iii) Globalisation is about flows of ideas, capital, commodities and people across the world; rivers are not part of the concept → (C).
(iv) Since its effects vary by place and society, the impact is uneven → (B).
4
25.
On a political outline map of India, four states are marked A, B, C and D:
A – a small state just north-west of Delhi;
B – a state in the east, south of Nepal, through which the Ganga flows;
C – a state in the east, touching the Bay of Bengal and Bangladesh;
D – the large state in the north, between A and B, bordering Nepal.
Identify them using the clues and write the clue number, the letter and the state name:
(i) The state related to former Prime Minister Chaudhary Charan Singh.
(ii) The state to which former Deputy Prime Minister Jagjivan Ram belonged.
(iii) The state where the Naxalites were very active.
(iv) A state where the Congress could not win even one Lok Sabha seat in 1977.
Answer
(i) D – Uttar Pradesh; (ii) B – Bihar; (iii) C – West Bengal; (iv) A – Haryana
(i) Charan Singh was a peasant leader from western Uttar Pradesh → D, Uttar Pradesh.
(ii) Jagjivan Ram came from Bihar → B, Bihar.
(iii) The Naxalite movement began at Naxalbari in Darjeeling district of West Bengal (1967) → C, West Bengal.
(iv) In 1977 the Congress lost every seat in the northern states such as Bihar, UP, Punjab, Haryana and Delhi; the marked state that fits is A, Haryana.
4 × 1 = 4.
4
26.
A cartoon about the era of coalition governments shows a crowd of political leaders riding together in a single car of a roller coaster labelled 'Indian Polity', with fires burning below the track. The leaders hold placards and flags reading 'Vendetta Express', 'V.P. Hatao', 'Mandal', 'Viva Mandal', 'Sadbhavna Yatra', 'Rath Yatra', 'Zindabad' and '????'.
(i) Identify and name the leader holding the 'Rath Yatra' placard. (1)
(ii) Which political party organised the 'Rath Yatra'? (1)
(iii) Identify and name any two Prime Ministers seen in the cartoon who headed coalition governments. (2)
Answer
(i) L.K. Advani (ii) Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) (iii) V.P. Singh and Chandra Shekhar
(i) The Rath Yatra (1990, Somnath to Ayodhya) was led by L.K. Advani.
(ii) It was organised by the BJP to build support for the Ram temple at Ayodhya.
(iii) The cartoon is about 1990: V.P. Singh (National Front government, which implemented Mandal – hence 'Mandal' and 'V.P. Hatao') and Chandra Shekhar (who followed him with Congress support) both led coalition/minority governments. 1 + 1 + 2.
4

SECTION E

Q27–30 are long answer type II questions of 6 marks each.
27.
"India's ties with Russia rest on a long history of trust and shared interests." Support this statement with any three suitable arguments.
Answer
Shared vision of a multipolar world order; benefits to India on Kashmir, energy, terrorism information and access to Central Asia; Russia's importance as an energy (oil/gas) supplier; Russia's repeated help in crises; cooperation in nuclear energy, defence and space.
Any three points, each explained (3 × 2):
(i) Common vision: both want a multipolar world order – collective security, greater regionalism, negotiated settlement of international conflicts, an independent foreign policy for all countries and decision-making through bodies like the UN.
(ii) Benefits for India: Russia has supported India on Kashmir, on energy supplies, sharing information on international terrorism and access to Central Asia; India is a major buyer of Russian arms, which benefits Russia too.
(iii) Energy: as an oil-importing country, India finds Russia (and the Central Asian republics) very important for oil and gas.
(iv) Trusted friend: Russia (earlier the USSR) has repeatedly come to India's help in difficult times (e.g. 1971 Treaty of Friendship, UN vetoes).
(v) Nuclear and space cooperation: Russia helps India's nuclear energy plans (e.g. Kudankulam) and space programme; the two have signed many bilateral agreements (e.g. 80 agreements in 2001).
OR
After the break-up of the Soviet Union, the 'shock therapy' model was applied. Analyse any three of its effects.
Answer
Total shift to capitalism; private ownership became dominant; immediate privatisation of state assets ('largest garage sale in history'); collective farms replaced by private farming; no 'third way'; also value of rouble crashed, inflation, collapse of welfare system, rise of mafia and inequality.
Shock therapy was the sudden, IMF/World Bank-backed transition from communism to capitalism in Russia, Central Asia and East Europe. Three effects explained (3 × 2):
(i) Each country had to shift totally to a capitalist economy – every structure of the Soviet system was to be removed.
(ii) Private ownership became the dominant form of property ownership; state assets were privatised quickly and corporate ownership introduced.
(iii) Collective farms were replaced by private farming and capitalism in agriculture.
(iv) No alternative or 'third way' between state socialism and capitalism was allowed.
Consequences often added for full marks: about 90% of industries were sold cheaply ('the largest garage sale in history'); the rouble fell sharply and inflation wiped out savings; the old welfare/social security system collapsed and poverty rose; a new class of oligarchs and mafia emerged, widening inequality; democratic institutions were built hastily with a strong executive.
6
28.
Explain any three environmental problems in world politics that no single government can solve on its own.
Answer
Shrinking/degrading farmland, overgrazing, over-fishing and water pollution hitting food output; lack of safe water and sanitation; deforestation and biodiversity loss; ozone layer depletion; coastal pollution; (global warming).
Any three explained (3 × 2):
(i) Agriculture and food: cultivable land is hardly expanding, existing land is losing fertility, grasslands are overgrazed, fisheries over-harvested and water bodies depleted and polluted – all limiting food production.
(ii) Water and sanitation: UNDP's Human Development Report 2016 noted that 663 million people in developing countries lack safe drinking water and 2.4 billion lack sanitation, causing the death of more than three million children every year.
(iii) Forests and biodiversity: natural forests are being cut down, people displaced, and biodiversity lost because species-rich habitats are destroyed.
(iv) Ozone depletion: the steady fall in stratospheric ozone (the 'ozone hole') threatens ecosystems and human health.
(v) Coastal pollution: land-based activities are increasingly polluting coastal waters worldwide.
These cross national borders, so they need global cooperation.
OR
Explain the principle of 'common but differentiated responsibilities'.
Answer
All countries share responsibility for protecting the environment, but developed countries (the North), which caused most of the damage and have more resources, must bear a bigger share; accepted in the Rio Declaration (1992) and the UNFCCC; developing countries like India got exemptions under Kyoto.
Points (assessed as a whole):
(i) The North and the South differ in their approach to the environment.
(ii) Developed countries of the North want to discuss environmental issues as they stand now and want every country to be equally responsible for conservation.
(iii) Developing countries of the South argue that most of the degradation was caused by industrialisation in the developed world, so the developed countries must take more responsibility; developing countries also need room to develop.
(iv) This view was accepted in the Rio Declaration at the Earth Summit (1992): states have common but differentiated responsibilities.
(v) The UNFCCC (1992) likewise says parties should protect the climate system on the basis of equity and according to their common but differentiated responsibilities and capabilities; so under the Kyoto Protocol, India and China were exempted from binding cuts.
6
29.
Describe any three big challenges that India had to face right after independence.
Answer
(1) Shaping a united nation that accommodates diversity (integration, after Partition); (2) establishing democracy and democratic practices; (3) ensuring development and well-being of the whole society, with equality and protection for weaker groups.
Three challenges, each explained (3 × 2):
(i) Unity with diversity: India had to be shaped into a nation that is united yet accommodates its huge diversity of languages, cultures and religions. Partition seemed to confirm the worst fears – would India survive as one country? Integration of territory (princely states) was urgent.
(ii) Establishing democracy: India adopted representative democracy with a parliamentary system and guaranteed rights and the vote to every citizen. The challenge was to develop democratic practices in line with the Constitution.
(iii) Development for all: the country had to ensure development and well-being of the whole society, not just some sections. The Constitution laid down equality and special protection for socially disadvantaged groups and religious and cultural communities (Directive Principles).
OR
Describe what Mahatma Gandhi did to reduce the communal violence that broke out in many parts of India at the time of Partition in 1947.
Answer
Stayed away from the Independence Day celebrations and stayed in riot-hit Calcutta, bringing calm; fasted to stop renewed riots; moved to Delhi and went on his last fast (January 1948) with dramatic effect – violence fell and Muslims could return home; kept meeting all communities in prayer meetings for non-violence and tolerance until his assassination.
Assessed as a whole:
(i) Gandhi did not take part in the Independence Day celebrations on 15 August 1947; he was in Calcutta, touring riot-torn areas.
(ii) His presence in Calcutta greatly improved the situation, and Independence Day there was celebrated in a spirit of communal harmony.
(iii) When riots broke out again, he went on a fast to restore peace.
(iv) As large-scale violence had spread to Delhi, he moved there. In January 1948 he began what proved his last fast, urging Hindus and Muslims to live in peace (and the government to treat Muslims and Pakistan fairly). Its effect was dramatic: tension and violence came down, and Muslims could safely return to their homes.
(v) Though extremists disliked his efforts, he continued to meet all people in his prayer meetings and kept up his struggle for non-violence, justice and tolerance, until he was assassinated on 30 January 1948. His death also made the government crack down on communal organisations.
6
30.
Analyse any three reasons behind the agitation against 'outsiders' in Assam between 1979 and 1985.
Answer
Fear that large numbers of Bengali (mostly Muslim) migrants from Bangladesh would swamp Assamese culture and make them a minority; resentment at outsiders taking land, jobs and political power; belief that politicians protected migrants as vote banks (faulty voter lists); also Assam's poverty despite oil, tea and coal.
Three reasons explained (3 × 2):
(i) Cultural fear: the Assamese suspected that huge numbers of Bengali Muslim settlers from Bangladesh were changing the state's culture and would turn the local people into a minority.
(ii) Resources: the outsiders were seen as encroachers on land, jobs and political power of the locals; there was also resentment that Assam's oil, tea and coal did not bring prosperity to its people.
(iii) Vote-bank politics: some politicians were believed to favour the outsiders to win their votes; faulty voter lists including illegal migrants made people angry.
The AASU-led movement (1979) demanded detection and deportation of illegal migrants; it ended with the Assam Accord (1985) signed with the Rajiv Gandhi government, after which the AGP came to power.
OR
"Regional aspirations are very much a part of democratic politics." Justify this statement.
Answer
Raising regional demands is normal in a democracy, not an aberration; agitation for demands is democratic; government should accommodate them through negotiation; India's diversity makes them natural; expressing them reduces anger; power-sharing (statehood, autonomy) satisfies them.
Any three points explained (3 × 2):
(i) Expression of regional issues is not abnormal; in a democracy it is common for regions to raise their own demands.
(ii) Peaceful agitation to get those demands met is itself a democratic right.
(iii) The government's duty is to accommodate such demands and resolve them through negotiation (e.g. Punjab Accord, Mizo Accord, Assam Accord).
(iv) A country as diverse as India naturally has many regional differences and identities.
(v) Allowing people to express their demands and differences helps calm their anger and prevents alienation.
(vi) Democracy involves power-sharing, so regions may ask for separate states or autonomy (e.g. creation of new states, special provisions for the North-East).
Conclusion: efforts should be made to meet the just needs of every region within the democratic framework.
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Questions restated from the CBSE Class XII Board Examination 2024 (set 59/1/1) for practice. Reading passages and map items are described, not reproduced.