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Roll No.
Q.P. Code 64/1/1

Geography (Theory)

CBSE Class XII Board Examination 2026 — with answers

Time allowed: 3 hoursMaximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

  1. The paper has 30 questions in five sections (A–E); all questions are compulsory.
  2. Section A: Q1–17 are multiple-choice questions of 1 mark each.
  3. Section B: Q18 and Q19 are source-based questions of 3 marks each.
  4. Section C: Q20–23 are short-answer questions of 3 marks each; answer in about 80–100 words.
  5. Section D: Q24–28 are long-answer questions of 5 marks each; answer in about 120–150 words.
  6. Section E: Q29 and Q30 are map-based questions of 5 marks each; attach the maps to the answer book.
  7. There is no overall choice, but some questions have an internal choice; attempt only one alternative.

SECTION A

Multiple choice type questions. Q1–17 carry 1 mark each.
1.
Read these statements about the concept of 'development' and pick the option that lists the correct ones.
I. Development is a positive change in life.
II. Whenever there is positive growth, there is development.
III. Development means having a greater quantity.
IV. Development is always relative to value.
  1. (A) Only I, II and III
  2. (B) Only I, II and IV
  3. (C) Only I, III and IV
  4. (D) Only II, III and IV
Answer
(B) Only I, II and IV
Growth is quantitative and value-neutral; development is qualitative and value-positive.
I is correct: development means a positive change in the quality of life.
II is correct: development takes place when positive growth happens (growth with improvement in quality).
III is wrong: a larger quantity alone is growth, not development.
IV is correct: development is always value-positive / relative to value.
So I, II and IV are correct.
Common mistake: treating growth (more quantity) as the same as development.
1
2.
Match the approaches to human development (Column I) with their features (Column II) and choose the correct option.
Column I: a. Income approach, b. Welfare approach, c. Basic needs approach, d. Capability approach
Column II: i. Put forward by the International Labour Organisation; ii. Health, education and access to resources are the key factors; iii. One of the oldest approaches; iv. Human beings are seen as the targeted beneficiaries
  1. (A) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
  2. (B) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
  3. (C) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
  4. (D) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
Answer
(D) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
Income approach: one of the oldest approaches; development is linked to income (a-iii).
Welfare approach: people are the beneficiaries/targets of all development activities; government spends on welfare (b-iv).
Basic needs approach: initially proposed by the ILO; six basic needs – health, education, food, water supply, sanitation, housing (c-i).
Capability approach: linked with Prof. Amartya Sen; building human capabilities in health, education and access to resources (d-ii).
Hence option (D).
1
3.
Which of the following is the low-latitude zone where subsistence gathering is practised in the world?
  1. (A) Northern Canada
  2. (B) Northern Eurasia
  3. (C) Southeast Asia
  4. (D) Southeast Chile
Answer
(C) Southeast Asia
Subsistence gathering is found in two kinds of regions: (i) high-latitude zones – northern Canada, northern Eurasia and southern Chile; (ii) low-latitude zones – the Amazon Basin, tropical Africa, northern fringe of Australia and the interior parts of Southeast Asia.
Of the given options only Southeast Asia lies in the low latitudes; the others are high-latitude zones.
1
4.
Which option lists only oil ports (ports that mainly handle oil tankers) of the world?
  1. (A) Maracaibo, Tripoli, Singapore
  2. (B) Esskhira, Singapore, Manchester
  3. (C) Maracaibo, Esskhira, Tripoli
  4. (D) Manchester, Esskhira, Marmagao
Answer
(C) Maracaibo, Esskhira, Tripoli
Oil ports deal with processing and shipping of oil. Some are tanker ports and some are refinery ports.
Maracaibo (Venezuela), Esskhira (Tunisia) and Tripoli (Lebanon) are tanker ports; Abadan on the Gulf of Persia is a refinery port.
Singapore is an entrepot port, Manchester is an inland port and Marmagao is an iron-ore exporting port of India, so options with these are wrong.
1
5.
Assertion (A): Every developed country has opened its markets to goods from developing countries.
Reason (R): The World Trade Organisation handles the global rules of trade between nations.
  1. (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
  4. (D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Answer
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
(R) is true: the WTO (set up in 1995) is the only international body dealing with the global rules of trade between nations and settles trade disputes.
(A) is false: the WTO has been criticised because developed countries have NOT fully opened their markets to products from developing countries, while asking developing countries to open theirs.
So (A) is false and (R) is true.
1
6.
Read these statements about tertiary activities and choose the correct option.
I. They include the production as well as the exchange of services.
II. They involve commercial output of services.
III. They are directly involved in processing raw materials.
IV. Plumbers, doctors and publishers are examples of tertiary activity.
  1. (A) Only I, II and III
  2. (B) Only I, II and IV
  3. (C) Only I, III and IV
  4. (D) Only II, III and IV
Answer
(B) Only I, II and IV
Tertiary activities are services: they include both production and exchange of services and involve the commercial output of services rather than tangible goods (I and II correct).
They are not directly involved in processing raw materials – that is secondary activity (III wrong).
Plumbers, electricians, doctors, teachers, publishers etc. provide services, so IV is correct.
Answer: I, II and IV.
1
7.
Which pair is correctly matched?
  1. (A) Red collar worker – practising lawyers
  2. (B) Gold collar worker – senior business executive
  3. (C) Pink collar worker – environmental scientist
  4. (D) White collar worker – mining worker
Answer
(B) Gold collar worker – senior business executive
Red collar = primary activity workers (farmers, fishermen) because they work outdoors.
Blue collar = secondary (manual/factory) workers.
Pink collar = tertiary/service workers, often office or retail jobs.
White collar = quaternary (knowledge) workers.
Gold collar = quinary workers – highest-level decision makers such as senior business executives, government officials, research scientists, financial and legal consultants.
So only (B) is correctly matched.
1
8.
Which statement correctly describes 'medical tourism' in India?
  1. (A) Tourists travel specially to use cheaper medical facilities.
  2. (B) Doctors travel to developed countries to perform surgery.
  3. (C) Doctors travel to treat patients.
  4. (D) Tourists get treatment if they happen to fall ill on a trip.
Answer
(A) Tourists travel specially to avail cheap medical facilities
Medical tourism means international patients travelling to another country mainly to get medical treatment, usually because it is cheaper or of good quality there.
India is a leading medical tourism destination – patients from the USA, UK, West Asia etc. come for surgeries and treatment at lower cost.
Getting treated after falling ill on a holiday is not medical tourism; it is incidental treatment.
1
9.
Choose the group of states where Dravidian languages are mainly spoken.
  1. (A) Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Maharashtra
  2. (B) Karnataka, Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh
  3. (C) Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Karnataka
  4. (D) Andhra Pradesh, Telangana and Madhya Pradesh
Answer
(C) Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Karnataka
The Dravidian family includes Tamil, Malayalam, Kannada and Telugu, spoken mainly in Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
Maharashtra (Marathi) and Madhya Pradesh (Hindi) speak Indo-Aryan languages, so every other option contains a wrong state.
1
10.
In which phase of India's population growth was a negative growth rate recorded in one decade?
  1. (A) Phase I
  2. (B) Phase II
  3. (C) Phase III
  4. (D) Phase IV
Answer
(A) Phase I
Phase I (1901–1921) is the period of stagnant or stationary population growth. Both birth and death rates were high.
During 1911–1921 India recorded a negative growth rate (–0.31%) because of epidemics (influenza), famines and the First World War.
Phases II–IV all show positive growth.
1
11.
Which option gives the Golden Quadrilateral cities in clockwise order starting from Delhi?
  1. (A) Delhi, Kolkata, Mumbai and Chennai
  2. (B) Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata and Chennai
  3. (C) Delhi, Chennai, Mumbai and Kolkata
  4. (D) Delhi, Kolkata, Chennai and Mumbai
Answer
(D) Delhi – Kolkata – Chennai – Mumbai
The Golden Quadrilateral (about 5,846 km, 4/6 lane) joins the four metros.
Picture the map: Delhi is in the north. Moving clockwise (towards the east first) you reach Kolkata, then go south down the east coast to Chennai, then cross to the west coast at Mumbai and come back north to Delhi.
So clockwise order is Delhi → Kolkata → Chennai → Mumbai.
1
12.
Which one of these cities is the headquarters of two railway zones?
  1. (A) Kolkata
  2. (B) Chennai
  3. (C) Jaipur
  4. (D) Bilaspur
Answer
(A) Kolkata
Kolkata is the headquarters of both the Eastern Railway and the South Eastern Railway zones (and also of Kolkata Metro Railway).
Chennai (Southern), Jaipur (North Western) and Bilaspur (South East Central) each head only one zone.
1
13.
Which of the following is a natural process of land degradation?
  1. (A) Mining activities
  2. (B) Gully erosion
  3. (C) Industrial waste
  4. (D) Shifting cultivation
Answer
(B) Gully erosion
Land degradation can be caused by natural processes (gully erosion, desertic sands, coastal sands, barren rocky areas, steep slopes, glacial areas) or by human action (mining, industrial waste, shifting cultivation, waterlogging from irrigation, degraded forests).
Gully erosion by running water is a natural process; the other three are human-made.
1
14.
In which unit is the loudness (intensity) of sound measured?
  1. (A) Millimetre
  2. (B) Centimetre
  3. (C) Decimal
  4. (D) Decibel
Answer
(D) Decibel (dB)
Noise pollution is judged by the level of sound, measured in decibels (dB). Sound above about 85 dB is harmful to the ear.
Millimetre and centimetre are units of length; 'decimal' is not a unit.
1
15.
A table lists the nine most populous countries with their population and share of world population: India 1,425,775,850 (17.4%), China 1,409,670,000 (17.2%), USA 337,975,234 (4.13%), Indonesia 278,696,200 (3.41%), Pakistan 229,488,994 (2.80%), Nigeria 216,746,934 (2.65%), Brazil 219,277,799 (2.68%), Bangladesh 168,220,000 (2.06%), Mexico 128,271,248 (1.57%).
How many of these countries are in Asia?
  1. (A) 3
  2. (B) 4
  3. (C) 5
  4. (D) 6
Answer
(C) 5
Asian countries in the list: India, China, Indonesia, Pakistan and Bangladesh = 5.
Others: USA and Mexico (North America), Nigeria (Africa), Brazil (South America).
1
16.
Using the same table of the nine most populous countries (India, China, USA, Indonesia, Pakistan, Nigeria, Brazil, Bangladesh, Mexico), which pair of continents has no country in the table?
  1. (A) Australia and Africa
  2. (B) Africa and South America
  3. (C) Europe and South America
  4. (D) Australia and Europe
Answer
(D) Australia and Europe
Continents present: Asia (India, China, Indonesia, Pakistan, Bangladesh), North America (USA, Mexico), Africa (Nigeria), South America (Brazil).
No country from Europe or Australia appears, so the answer is (D).
1
17.
From the same table (China 17.2% and Brazil 2.68% of world population), what share of the world's population do China and Brazil have together?
  1. (A) 17.88
  2. (B) 17.58
  3. (C) 19.88
  4. (D) 19.58
Answer
(C) 19.88%
Add the two shares: 17.2 + 2.68 = 19.88 per cent.
Common mistake: adding 17.2 + 0.68 or misplacing the decimal and getting 17.88.
1

SECTION B

Source based questions. Q18 and Q19 carry 3 marks each.
18.
A world map shows the areas of extensive commercial grain farming (shaded). Area A is the shaded belt in the interior of North America (around 40°–55°N, in Canada and the USA); area B is the shaded belt in the interior of Eurasia, east of the Caspian Sea / Black Sea region.
(18.1) Give the geographical name of area A. (1)
(18.2) Name any two main crops grown in area A. (½ + ½)
(18.3) Explain the agricultural importance of area B. (1)
Answer
(18.1) The Prairies of Canada and the USA
(18.2) Any two: wheat, corn (maize), barley, oats, rye
(18.3) B (Eurasian steppes) is a major extensive commercial grain (wheat) farming belt: very large, mechanised farms with low yield per acre but high yield per person.
(18.1) Area A lies in the interior grasslands of North America – the Canadian and American Prairies.
(18.2) Wheat is the main crop; corn, barley, oats and rye are also grown. Any two earn ½ mark each.
(18.3) Area B is the steppe grassland of Eurasia, another big region of extensive commercial grain farming. Its importance (any one point explained):
• Grain, especially wheat, is grown on a commercial scale for the market.
• Farms are very large (hundreds of hectares).
• All operations from ploughing to harvesting are mechanised.
• Yield per acre is low, but yield per person is high, giving a big surplus for trade.
Tip: in (18.3) write a full sentence explaining the point, not just one word.
3
19.
A short passage on water pollution says that industries release many harmful by-products – waste water, poisonous gases, chemical residues, heavy metals, dust and smoke – and most of the waste is dumped into rivers and lakes. These toxins reach reservoirs and rivers and destroy aquatic life. Leather, paper and pulp, textile and chemical industries are named as the main polluters.
(19.1) Explain how industries are a major cause of water pollution in India. (1)
(19.2) Suggest one way to reduce water pollution. (1)
(19.3) Name two highly polluted rivers of India. (½ + ½)
Answer
(19.1) Industrial effluents, toxic chemicals, heavy metals and waste dumped into water bodies pollute them.
(19.2) e.g. stop discharge of untreated industrial waste into rivers / treat and reuse waste water / public awareness.
(19.3) Any two: Ganga, Yamuna, Sabarmati, Gomti, Kali, Adyar, Cooum, Vaigai, Musi.
(19.1) Industries discharge untreated waste water, chemical effluents, poisonous substances and heavy metals directly into rivers and lakes. These mix with the water, make it toxic and destroy the aquatic ecosystem.
(19.2) Any one: industries should treat effluents before release and not dump waste into rivers; prevent fertilisers and pesticides from washing into water bodies; run public awareness programmes; encourage reuse of treated water by industries and households.
(19.3) Highly polluted rivers: the Ganga and the Yamuna (others accepted – Sabarmati, Gomti, Kali, Adyar, Cooum, Vaigai, Musi).
3

SECTION C

Short answer type questions. Q20–23 carry 3 marks each.
20.
Examine the relationship between the 'unresting man' and the 'unstable earth'.
Answer
Both the earth and humans are dynamic; their interaction keeps changing – humans use and modify nature (farms, houses, roads) and the changed environment in turn affects human life.
Points (any three, 1 mark each):
1. The earth is not static; its physical features keep changing – it is an 'unstable earth'.
2. Humans too are not static; they are always active and moving – the 'unresting man'.
3. Because both are dynamic, the relationship between humans and nature keeps changing over time.
4. Humans cultivate land, build houses, roads, cities and other structures on the earth.
5. Humans use the resources of the physical environment and greatly modify it; these changes in turn affect human life (e.g. pollution, floods, climate change).
The phrase comes from the idea that human geography studies the interrelationship between the unresting man and the unstable earth.
3
21.
Examine why 'sustainability' is an important pillar of human development.
Answer
Sustainability means continuity of opportunities – every generation must get the same choices, so environmental, financial and human resources must be used wisely keeping the future in mind.
Any three points:
1. Sustainability means the continued availability of opportunities over time.
2. For sustainable human development, each generation must have the same opportunities as the previous one.
3. All resources – environmental, financial and human – must be used carefully, keeping future generations in mind.
4. Misuse of any of these resources reduces the opportunities left for future generations (e.g. over-use of groundwater or forests).
5. Each generation has the responsibility to ensure choices and opportunities for those who follow.
(The four pillars of human development are equity, sustainability, productivity and empowerment.)
3
22.
Explain the main features of urban settlements in India.
Answer
Compact and large; engaged in secondary and tertiary activities; centres of economic growth serving rural areas too; good transport and communication; linked with villages and other towns; complex, fast life with formal social relations.
Any three points:
1. Urban settlements are generally compact and larger in size than villages.
2. People are engaged mainly in non-agricultural (secondary and tertiary) activities such as industry, trade and services.
3. Towns act as nodes of economic growth and provide goods and services not only to their own residents but also to surrounding rural areas.
4. They have a better network of transport and communication.
5. Cities are linked directly and indirectly with villages and with one another (exchange of food, raw materials, goods and services).
6. The way of life is complex and fast, and social relations are formal.
OR
Explain how towns evolved in India.
Answer
Towns existed from Harappan times; on the basis of evolution they are ancient (Varanasi, Madurai), medieval (Delhi, Jaipur, Agra) and modern (Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata built by the British); after Independence new administrative, industrial and satellite towns developed (Chandigarh, Bhilai, Gurugram).
Any three points:
1. Towns have flourished in India since prehistoric times – Harappa and Mohenjodaro.
2. Their growth continued with ups and downs until the coming of the Europeans.
3. Ancient towns: more than 2000 years of history, mostly religious/cultural centres – Varanasi, Prayagraj, Pataliputra (Patna), Madurai.
4. Medieval towns: grew as fort towns and headquarters of kingdoms, often on ruins of older towns – Delhi, Hyderabad, Jaipur, Lucknow, Agra, Nagpur.
5. Modern towns: developed by the British and other Europeans – first coastal trading ports (Surat, Daman, Goa, Puducherry), then the three nodes Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata; later hill towns, cantonments, industrial and administrative towns.
6. After 1947: administrative headquarters (Chandigarh, Gandhinagar, Dispur), industrial towns (Durgapur, Bhilai) and satellite towns around metros (Ghaziabad, Rohtak, Gurugram).
3
23.
A table shows India's workforce by sector (Census 2011): Primary – 26,30,22,473 persons (54.6% of workers; males 16,54,47,075, females 9,75,75,398); Secondary – 1,83,36,307 (3.8%; males 97,75,635, females 85,60,672); Tertiary – 20,03,84,531 (41.6%; males 15,66,43,220, females 4,37,41,311).
(23.1) Why is there a large gap between the number of female workers in the primary and tertiary sectors? (1)
(23.2) Give a reason for the small difference between male workers in the primary and tertiary sectors. (1)
(23.3) Why does the secondary sector contribute so little to India's workforce? (1)
Answer
(23.1) Men migrate to cities, so women remain in farm work; female participation in services is low and recent.
(23.2) Men still work in agriculture, but many are shifting to growing service jobs, so both sectors have large male numbers.
(23.3) Slow industrial growth, skill gaps and a direct shift from agriculture to services.
(23.1) Female primary workers ≈ 9.76 crore vs tertiary ≈ 4.37 crore. Many rural men migrate to towns for work, leaving women to work on farms; also, women's participation in tertiary (service) jobs is low and has started only recently, due to lower education/skills and social restrictions.
(23.2) Male primary ≈ 16.5 crore vs tertiary ≈ 15.7 crore – close. The workforce pattern is changing: many men still farm, but many have moved into services as job opportunities in trade, transport and services increase.
(23.3) Only 3.8% work in manufacturing because of low industrial growth, lack of skills and the economy moving straight from agriculture to services.
3

SECTION D

Long answer type questions. Q24–28 carry 5 marks each.
24.
"Industries should be set up where production costs are lowest." Examine this statement with suitable arguments.
Answer
Industries choose places that minimise cost through:
• access to market
• access to raw material
• supply of labour
• sources of energy
• transport and communication
• government policy
• agglomeration economies (links between industries)
Industries aim to maximise profit, so they locate where total cost is least. Factors (any five, explained):
1. Market: nearness to consumers reduces cost of distributing finished goods (e.g. developed regions of Europe, USA).
2. Raw material: weight-losing or perishable raw materials need industries near the source – sugar mills near cane fields, iron and steel near iron ore/coal.
3. Labour: availability of cheap or skilled labour lowers cost.
4. Energy: power-intensive industries like aluminium smelting locate near cheap power sources.
5. Transport and communication: cheap and efficient transport of raw materials and goods; Western Europe and eastern North America have high concentration due to dense networks.
6. Government policy: subsidies, tax relief and 'regional policies' attract industries to particular areas.
7. Agglomeration economies: industries benefit from being close to other industries (sharing services, ancillary units).
Conclusion: the place where all these together give the least production cost is the best location.
5
25.
"Railways carry bulky goods and passengers over long distances on land." Keeping this in mind, explain the importance of railways in the world.
Answer
• About 13 lakh km of railways open for traffic
• Commuter trains popular in UK, USA, Japan, India
• Europe: densest network (~4.4 lakh km)
• North America: most extensive network, mainly freight
• Russia: railways ~90% of total transport
• Trans-continental railways in Russia, Canada, USA, Australia, South America
• Dense networks in Japan, China, India; Africa ~40,000 km, half in South Africa
Any five points:
1. Railways are the main mode of long-distance surface transport; the world has about 13 lakh km of railways.
2. Commuter trains carry lakhs of daily passengers to and from cities in the UK, USA, Japan and India.
3. Europe has one of the densest networks (about 4.4 lakh km), often double or multiple tracked; key rail heads – London, Paris, Brussels, Milan, Berlin, Warsaw.
4. North America has one of the most extensive networks (about 40% of the world total), used more for bulky freight like ores, grain, timber, machinery.
5. In Russia railways account for about 90% of total transport, with a dense network west of the Urals.
6. Trans-continental railways (Trans-Siberian, Trans-Canadian, Union and Pacific, Trans-Australian, Trans-Andean) link the two coasts of continents and open up interior regions.
7. In Asia, the network is densest in thickly populated Japan, China and India.
8. Africa has about 40,000 km of railways, nearly half of it in South Africa, mainly for minerals.
OR
"For short distances, road transport is cheaper than railways." Keeping this in mind, explain the importance of road transport in the world.
Answer
• Economical for short distances
• Door-to-door service
• Feeder to railways, airways and waterways
• Quality varies between developed and developing countries
• High road density in North America (about 33% of world motorable roads), good highways in Europe, west of Urals in Russia, China, India
• Vital for trade, commerce and tourism
Any five points:
1. Roads are the most economical for short distances compared to railways.
2. They provide door-to-door service, so freight by road is gaining importance.
3. Roads act as feeders to railways, airports and sea ports.
4. Road quality differs: developed countries have good roads everywhere (motorways, autobahns of Germany, inter-state highways), while in developing countries roads are often unsurfaced and affected by weather.
5. North America has very high road density – about 33% of the world's motorable roads.
6. Europe has a well-developed highway network; in Russia a dense network exists in the industrial region west of the Urals.
7. In China highways connect all major cities; in India many national highways link major towns.
8. Roads play a vital role in a nation's trade and commerce and in promoting tourism.
5
26.
"The land use of a region usually depends on the type of economic activities there." Support this statement with suitable examples.
Answer
• Land is fixed but economic activities change
• Bigger economy (more people, income) puts pressure on land; marginal land is used
• Growth of secondary and tertiary sectors shifts land from farming to non-farm uses
• Forest land is diverted to other uses
• More food needed → culturable waste and old fallows brought under cultivation
Any five points:
1. Land is a fixed resource, but the nature of economic activities changes over time; so the use of land also changes.
2. Size of the economy: as population and incomes grow, demand on land rises and even marginal land is put to use.
3. Composition of the economy: as secondary and tertiary sectors grow faster than agriculture, agricultural land is shifted to non-agricultural uses (factories, housing, roads) – e.g. farmland around big cities turning into urban land.
4. With economic growth, forest land is also diverted to other uses such as mining, roads and dams.
5. A growing population needs more food, so culturable wasteland and fallow land (other than current fallow) are brought under cultivation.
6. In India, area under non-agricultural uses has risen fastest while barren/waste land and culturable wasteland have declined.
(Explain each point with an example.)
OR
"Indian agriculture faces both physical constraints and institutional hurdles." Support the statement with suitable examples.
Answer
• Dependence on erratic monsoon
• Low productivity
• Lack of finance and indebtedness
• Lack of land reforms
• Small and fragmented holdings
• Lack of commercialisation
• Large underemployment
• Degradation of cultivable land
Any five, each explained:
1. Erratic monsoon (physical): only about a third of cultivated land is irrigated; the rest depends on rainfall, so droughts and floods damage crops.
2. Low productivity: crop yields are lower than world levels; labour productivity is also very low due to heavy pressure on land.
3. Financial constraints and indebtedness: modern inputs are costly; small and marginal farmers have little savings and fall into debt.
4. Lack of land reforms (institutional): unequal distribution of land continues, discouraging investment by tillers.
5. Small farm size and fragmentation: most holdings are tiny and scattered, making them uneconomic and hard to mechanise.
6. Lack of commercialisation: many farmers grow for self-consumption; modern, market-oriented farming is limited to irrigated areas.
7. Underemployment: especially in unirrigated areas, farm work is not available throughout the year.
8. Land degradation (physical): salinity, alkalinity and waterlogging from faulty irrigation, and toxic build-up from excess chemicals reduce fertility.
5
27.
Explain why petroleum is an important source of energy and describe where it is found in India. (3 + 2)
Answer
Importance: fuel for internal combustion engines (vehicles, railways, aircraft); many by-products for petrochemical industries; scarce with many uses – 'liquid gold'; ONGC set up in 1956 for exploration.
Distribution: Assam (Digboi, Naharkatiya, Moran); Gujarat (Ankleshwar, Kalol, Mehsana, Nawagam, Kosamba, Lunej); Mumbai High (offshore); Krishna–Godavari and Kaveri basins.
Significance (any three):
1. Petroleum is the main energy source for internal combustion engines in automobiles, railways and aircraft.
2. Its many by-products are raw materials for petrochemical industries – fertilisers, synthetic rubber and fibre, medicines, vaseline, lubricants, wax, soap and cosmetics.
3. Being scarce and having diverse uses, it is called 'liquid gold'.
4. ONGC was set up in 1956 for systematic exploration and production of oil and natural gas.
Distribution (any two):
1. Assam – Digboi, Naharkatiya, Moran (oldest oil fields).
2. Gujarat – Ankleshwar, Kalol, Mehsana, Nawagam, Kosamba, Lunej.
3. Mumbai High – offshore field in the Arabian Sea, about 160 km from Mumbai.
4. Krishna–Godavari and Kaveri basins on the east coast – exploratory wells.
OR
Explain why iron ore is an important industrial raw material and describe its distribution in India. (3 + 2)
Answer
Importance: base of metallurgical industries; India has abundant, high-quality hematite and magnetite reserves (largest in Asia), demand abroad; mines lie close to coalfields in the north-eastern plateau.
Distribution: Odisha (Sundergarh, Mayurbhanj, Jhar), Jharkhand (Singhbhum), Chhattisgarh (Durg, Dantewara, Bailadila), Karnataka (Ballari, Chikkamagaluru, Shivamogga, Chitradurga, Tumakuru), Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Goa.
Significance (any three):
1. Iron ore is the base of metallurgical industries such as iron and steel.
2. India has fairly abundant iron ore – the largest reserves in Asia.
3. The two main types are hematite and magnetite, of superior quality, so they are in great demand in the international market.
4. Iron ore mines lie close to coalfields in the north-eastern plateau region, an added advantage for steel plants.
Distribution (any two):
1. Odisha – leading producer; Sundergarh, Mayurbhanj and Jhar hills.
2. Jharkhand – Poorbi and Pashchimi Singhbhum.
3. Chhattisgarh – Durg, Dantewara, Bailadila.
4. Karnataka – Ballari, Chikkamagaluru, Shivamogga, Chitradurga, Tumakuru.
5. Others – Maharashtra (Chandrapur, Bhandara, Ratnagiri), Telangana (Karimnagar, Warangal), Andhra Pradesh (Kurnool, Cuddapah, Anantapur), Tamil Nadu (Salem, Nilgiris), Goa.
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28.
Analyse the role of India's sea ports in developing international trade.
Answer
• 12 major and about 200 minor/intermediate ports
• Gateways of international trade
• Handle large domestic and overseas trade
• About 95% of foreign trade by volume and 70% by value moves by sea
• Modern infrastructure
• Cargo capacity up from 20 million tonnes (1951) to over 837 million tonnes (2016)
Any five points:
1. India has a long coastline with 12 major and about 200 minor or intermediate ports.
2. Ports act as gateways of international trade, linking the hinterland with world markets.
3. They handle a large volume of both domestic (coastal) and overseas trade.
4. About 95% of India's foreign trade by volume and about 70% by value moves through sea routes.
5. Most major ports have modern infrastructure – container terminals, mechanised handling, deep berths.
6. Port capacity has risen from about 20 million tonnes of cargo in 1951 to more than 837 million tonnes in 2016.
7. Examples: Kandla (Deendayal), Mumbai, JNPT, Mormugao, New Mangaluru, Kochi on the west coast; Kolkata–Haldia, Paradip, Visakhapatnam, Chennai, Tuticorin on the east coast.
OR
Analyse how the pattern of India's international trade has changed.
Answer
• Trade has grown many times since 1950-51
• Traditional exports (e.g. cashew) fell; floriculture, fruits, marine products, sugar rose
• 1950s–60s imports of food grains and capital goods; after the Green Revolution fertilisers and crude petroleum replaced food grains
• Exports of manufactured and engineering goods rose sharply
• Imports of capital goods declined; machinery, special steel, edible oil, chemicals remain major imports
• Gems and jewellery: import, add value, re-export
Any five points:
1. India's international trade (value) has grown many-fold from 1950-51 to 2020-21.
2. Share of traditional agricultural exports like cashew has fallen, while floricultural products, fresh fruits, marine products and sugar exports have increased.
3. In the 1950s–60s India imported food grains, capital goods, machinery and equipment. After the 1970s, food grain imports were replaced by fertilisers (thanks to the Green Revolution), and crude petroleum imports rose – along with export of refined petroleum products.
4. Exports of manufactured and engineering goods have increased greatly.
5. Import of capital goods has declined, while machinery and equipment, special steel, edible oils and chemicals make up a big share of imports.
6. Export of ores and minerals has remained more or less steady.
7. Pearls, precious stones, gold and silver are both imported and exported – India adds value by turning them into gems and jewellery.
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SECTION E

Map based questions. Q29 and Q30 carry 5 marks each.
29.
On a political outline map of the world, seven features are marked A–G. Identify any five:
A. A terminal station of the Trans-Siberian Railway (marked at its western end, near the Gulf of Finland in Russia)
B. A major sea port (marked on the Pacific coast of South America, in Chile)
C. A major airport (marked in East Africa, in Kenya)
D. An international shipping canal (marked on the narrow land link between North and South America)
E. An area of subsistence gathering (shaded region in central Africa)
F. An area of commercial livestock rearing (shaded region in the western USA)
G. An area of dairy farming (shaded region in the south-east of Australia)
Answer
A: St. Petersburg
B: Valparaiso
C: Nairobi
D: Panama Canal
E: Tropical Africa (Congo Basin)
F: Western USA (ranching region)
G: South-eastern Australia
A – St. Petersburg is the western terminus of the Trans-Siberian Railway (Vladivostok is the eastern one).
B – Valparaiso is the chief sea port of Chile on the Pacific coast.
C – Nairobi (Jomo Kenyatta International Airport) is the major airport of Kenya.
D – The Panama Canal joins the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans across the Isthmus of Panama.
E – Tropical Africa (Congo Basin) is a low-latitude zone of subsistence gathering.
F – The western parts of the USA (Great Plains/Rocky Mountain ranches) are known for commercial livestock rearing.
G – South-eastern Australia is a dairy farming area (as marked in the official answer key).
Any five correct identifications = 1 mark each.
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30.
On a political outline map of India, locate and label any five of the following with suitable symbols:
1. The state with the highest population density (2011)
2. The leading tea-producing state
3. An iron-ore mining area in southern Chhattisgarh
4. A major bauxite mining area in Odisha
5. An oil refinery in Uttar Pradesh
6. A major sea port at the head of the Gulf of Kachchh
7. An international airport in Punjab
Answer
1. Bihar
2. Assam
3. Bailadila (also Durg/Dantewara)
4. Koraput (also Kalahandi/Sambalpur/Bolangir)
5. Mathura
6. Kandla (Deendayal Port)
7. Amritsar (Sri Guru Ram Dass Jee International Airport, Raja Sansi)
1. Bihar had the highest density in 2011 (1,102 persons per sq km) – shade the state.
2. Assam leads in tea production – shade the state.
3. Bailadila in Dantewada district, southern Chhattisgarh – mark with a dot/triangle.
4. Koraput in south-western Odisha – bauxite (Panchpatmali deposits).
5. Mathura refinery in western Uttar Pradesh.
6. Kandla (Deendayal Port) at the head of the Gulf of Kachchh, Gujarat – a tidal port.
7. Amritsar – Sri Guru Ram Dass Jee International Airport at Raja Sansi.
Use proper symbols and write names clearly; any five = 5 marks.
5
— END —
Questions restated from the CBSE Class XII Board Examination 2026 (set 64/1/1) for practice. Reading passages and map items are described, not reproduced.