Roll No.
Q.P. Code 64/1/1
Geography
CBSE Class XII Board Examination 2024 — with answers
Time allowed: 3 hoursMaximum Marks: 70
General Instructions:
- The paper has 30 questions in five sections (A to E); all of them must be answered.
- Section A: Q1–17, multiple choice, 1 mark each.
- Section B: Q18–19, source-based, 3 marks each.
- Section C: Q20–23, short answer, 3 marks each (about 80–100 words).
- Section D: Q24–28, long answer, 5 marks each (about 120–150 words).
- Section E: Q29–30, map-based, 5 marks each (attach the maps to the answer book).
- There is no overall choice, but some questions in Sections B–E offer an internal choice (OR); attempt only one of the choices.
SECTION A
Q1–17 are multiple choice questions of 1 mark each.
1.
In India, which of these groups of languages has the smallest number of speakers (smallest language group)?
- (A) Sanskrit, Bodo and Manipuri
- (B) Kannada, Tamil and Telugu
- (C) Dogri, Punjabi and Konkani
- (D) Maithili, Gujarati and Bangla
Answer
(A) Sanskrit, Bodo and Manipuri
The scheduled languages are grouped by the number of speakers. Sanskrit, Bodo and Manipuri are spoken by the fewest people, so they form the smallest group.
Kannada, Tamil, Telugu, Bangla, Gujarati etc. each have crores of speakers.
Common mistake: do not confuse 'oldest/classical' (Sanskrit) with 'most spoken'.
Kannada, Tamil, Telugu, Bangla, Gujarati etc. each have crores of speakers.
Common mistake: do not confuse 'oldest/classical' (Sanskrit) with 'most spoken'.
1
2.
Which type of retail outlet can buy goods most cheaply because it asks manufacturers directly to make products to its own specifications?
- (A) Trading Centres
- (B) Consumer Cooperatives
- (C) Departmental Stores
- (D) Chain Stores
Answer
(D) Chain Stores
Chain stores buy in very large quantities for many outlets. They can therefore go straight to the manufacturer and get goods made to their own specification, which lowers the purchase cost.
They often employ highly skilled specialists for executive tasks as well.
They often employ highly skilled specialists for executive tasks as well.
1
3.
Making synthetic fibres and plastics is an example of which kind of industry (classified by raw material)?
- (A) Mineral-based industry
- (B) Chemical-based industry
- (C) Forest-based industry
- (D) Animal-based industry
Answer
(B) Chemical-based industry
Chemical-based industries use natural chemical minerals or chemicals derived from petroleum. Synthetic fibres, plastics, salt, sulphur etc. are their products.
Mineral-based = iron and steel, cement; forest-based = paper, furniture; animal-based = leather, wool.
Mineral-based = iron and steel, cement; forest-based = paper, furniture; animal-based = leather, wool.
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4.
Which pair of a target area programme and its area is correctly matched?
- (A) Hill Area Development Programme – semi-arid and arid tracts of India
- (B) Drought Prone Area Programme – 15 hilly districts
- (C) Indira Gandhi Canal Command Area – Ganganagar, Hanumangarh
- (D) Integrated Tribal Development Project – Rajasthan and Gujarat
Answer
(C) Indira Gandhi Canal Command Area – Ganganagar, Hanumangarh
The Indira Gandhi Canal command area lies in north-west Rajasthan, including Ganganagar, Hanumangarh and Bikaner districts.
The other pairs are swapped: the Hill Area Development Programme covered 15 hilly districts, while the Drought Prone Area Programme was for arid and semi-arid tracts. The Integrated Tribal Development Project example in NCERT is Bharmaur (Himachal Pradesh).
The other pairs are swapped: the Hill Area Development Programme covered 15 hilly districts, while the Drought Prone Area Programme was for arid and semi-arid tracts. The Integrated Tribal Development Project example in NCERT is Bharmaur (Himachal Pradesh).
1
5.
Consider these statements about the objectives of the National Policy for Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (2015):
I. Raising the literacy rate of the different age groups in India.
II. Giving one umbrella framework to all skilling activities.
III. Bringing all skilling activities to common standards.
IV. Linking skilling activities to demand centres.
Which option is correct?
I. Raising the literacy rate of the different age groups in India.
II. Giving one umbrella framework to all skilling activities.
III. Bringing all skilling activities to common standards.
IV. Linking skilling activities to demand centres.
Which option is correct?
- (A) Only I, II and III are correct.
- (B) Only II, III and IV are correct.
- (C) Only I, III and IV are correct.
- (D) Only I, II and IV are correct.
Answer
(B) Only II, III and IV are correct.
The 2015 policy aims to provide an umbrella framework to all skilling activities, align them to common standards and link skilling with demand centres.
Improving literacy rates is not its objective (that belongs to education/literacy missions), so statement I is wrong.
Improving literacy rates is not its objective (that belongs to education/literacy missions), so statement I is wrong.
1
6.
Rainfed farming is also known by which other name?
- (A) Productive farming
- (B) Protective farming
- (C) Barani
- (D) Zaid
Answer
(C) Barani
Farming that depends only on rainfall is called rainfed or barani farming. It is further divided into dryland and wetland farming depending on the amount of rain.
'Protective' and 'productive' are types of irrigated farming; Zaid is a short summer cropping season.
'Protective' and 'productive' are types of irrigated farming; Zaid is a short summer cropping season.
1
7.
Which of these is NOT an aim of the Namami Gange Programme?
- (A) Developing sewerage treatment systems in towns
- (B) Monitoring of industrial effluents
- (C) Afforestation along the banks of the river
- (D) To divert the flow of the river from the cities
Answer
(D) Diverting the river's flow away from cities
Namami Gange aims to clean and protect the Ganga: sewage treatment in towns, monitoring industrial effluents, river-front development, afforestation along the banks, cleaning the river surface and public awareness.
Diverting the river away from cities is not one of its aims.
Diverting the river away from cities is not one of its aims.
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8.
Which stretch belongs to National Waterway No. 1?
- (A) Allahabad/Prayagraj – Haldia
- (B) Sadiya – Dhubri
- (C) Kottapuram – Kollam
- (D) Kakinada – Puducherry
Answer
(A) Allahabad/Prayagraj – Haldia
NW-1 is on the Ganga–Bhagirathi–Hugli system from Prayagraj to Haldia (about 1620 km).
Sadiya–Dhubri = NW-2 (Brahmaputra); Kottapuram–Kollam = NW-3 (West Coast Canal); Kakinada–Puducherry = part of NW-4.
Sadiya–Dhubri = NW-2 (Brahmaputra); Kottapuram–Kollam = NW-3 (West Coast Canal); Kakinada–Puducherry = part of NW-4.
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9.
Read the two statements:
Statement I: After independence, some old towns near metropolitan cities in India grew into satellite towns.
Statement II: Delhi is a good example of such a metropolitan city.
Choose the correct option.
Statement I: After independence, some old towns near metropolitan cities in India grew into satellite towns.
Statement II: Delhi is a good example of such a metropolitan city.
Choose the correct option.
- (A) Only statement I is correct.
- (B) Only statement II is correct.
- (C) Both statements I and II are correct and statement II is the correct example of statement I.
- (D) Both statements I and II are correct, but statement II is not the correct example of statement I.
Answer
(C) Both are correct and II is the correct example of I
After 1947 several old towns around big cities developed as satellite towns, e.g. Ghaziabad, Rohtak and Gurugram around Delhi.
So statement I is true and Delhi is a correct example of such a metropolis.
So statement I is true and Delhi is a correct example of such a metropolis.
1
10.
Why have clustered (compact) settlements developed in the dry areas of Rajasthan? Choose the most suitable reason.
- (A) For the maximum utilization of land resources.
- (B) For external security and defence.
- (C) For maximum utilization of available water resources.
- (D) For internal security and defence.
Answer
(C) To make the best use of the scarce water available
In the dry regions of Rajasthan water is scarce, so people live close together around the available water source (ponds, wells) to use it best.
Security is the reason in places like Bundelkhand or Nagaland, not in Rajasthan.
Security is the reason in places like Bundelkhand or Nagaland, not in Rajasthan.
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11.
Which is the largest government undertaking in India?
- (A) Indian Railways
- (B) National Highways Authority of India
- (C) Border Roads Organization
- (D) All India Radio
Answer
(A) Indian Railways
Indian Railways has one of the longest networks in the world, carries both freight and passengers and is the biggest government undertaking in the country.
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12.
Which group consists only of mining towns of India?
- (A) Kandla, Kochchi and Kozhikode
- (B) Ankaleshwar, Singrauli and Digboi
- (C) Mumbai, Salem and Modinagar
- (D) Varanasi, Roorki and Aligarh
Answer
(B) Ankaleshwar, Singrauli and Digboi
In the functional classification of towns, Ankaleshwar (oil), Singrauli (coal) and Digboi (oil) are mining towns.
Kandla, Kochchi, Kozhikode = ports; Mumbai, Salem, Modinagar = industrial; Varanasi, Roorki, Aligarh = educational/religious.
Kandla, Kochchi, Kozhikode = ports; Mumbai, Salem, Modinagar = industrial; Varanasi, Roorki, Aligarh = educational/religious.
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13.
Which group of industries is a major source of water pollution in India?
- (A) Leather, pulp and paper
- (B) Iron, copper and sugar
- (C) Sugar, petrochemical and fertilizer
- (D) Cotton textile, chemical and power plant
Answer
(A) Leather, pulp and paper
NCERT lists leather, pulp and paper, textiles and chemicals as the main industries that pour polluting effluents into water bodies.
Among the options, only (A) contains a fully correct group as per the textbook.
Among the options, only (A) contains a fully correct group as per the textbook.
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14.
Which organisation lays down the rules of global trade among its member countries?
- (A) United Nations
- (B) World Trade Organisation
- (C) North American Free Trade Association
- (D) South Asian Free Trade Agreement
Answer
(B) World Trade Organisation
The WTO (set up in 1995, replacing GATT) sets the rules for the global trading system and settles disputes between member nations. It also covers trade in services.
1
15.
Case study (summary) for Q15–17: 'Stages of Demographic Transition Theory' – in the first stage both birth and death rates are high, growth is slow, people are mostly farmers, illiterate and with little technology; in the second stage death rates fall (better sanitation and health) while birth rates stay high for a while, so the population grows fast; in the last stage both rates are low, the population is urban, literate and keeps families small, and growth is slow or nil.
Which stage/stages show high growth of population?
- (A) Only the first stage
- (B) Only the second stage
- (C) Both first and second stages
- (D) Both second and last stages
Answer
(B) Only the second stage
In stage 2 better health and sanitation reduce the death rate while the birth rate is still high. The gap between births and deaths gives a large net addition to population.
Stage 1 (both high) and the last stage (both low) have slow growth.
Stage 1 (both high) and the last stage (both low) have slow growth.
1
16.
Choose the most suitable option about the components of population change.
- (A) Births, deaths and migration
- (B) Births, density and migration
- (C) Density, literacy and age structure
- (D) Deaths, literacy and sex ratio
Answer
(A) Births, deaths and migration
Population of an area changes only through births (adds), deaths (subtracts) and migration (in or out).
Density, literacy, age structure and sex ratio are attributes of population, not components of change.
Density, literacy, age structure and sex ratio are attributes of population, not components of change.
1
17.
Which stage/stages show slow growth of population?
- (A) Only the first stage
- (B) Only the second stage
- (C) Only second and last stages
- (D) Only first and last stages
Answer
(D) Only first and last stages
Stage 1: high birth rate is cancelled by high death rate → slow growth.
Last stage: both birth and death rates are low → population stable or slow-growing.
Only stage 2 has fast growth.
Last stage: both birth and death rates are low → population stable or slow-growing.
Only stage 2 has fast growth.
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SECTION B
Q18–19 are source-based questions of 3 marks each.
18.
Source (summary): 'Services' – services work at different levels: some serve industry, some serve people and some (like transport) serve both. Common, low-order services such as grocery shops and laundries are more widespread than specialised ones like accountants, consultants or doctors. Many services are now regulated, and corporations set up by State and Union laws supervise and control the marketing of transport, telecommunication, energy and water supply.
(18.1) Give any one example of a common and widespread service. (1)
(18.2) Who supervises and controls the marketing of services? (1)
(18.3) Support the statement 'Services occur at many different levels.' (1)
(18.2) Who supervises and controls the marketing of services? (1)
(18.3) Support the statement 'Services occur at many different levels.' (1)
Answer
(18.1) Grocery shops / laundries.
(18.2) Corporations established by State and Union legislation.
(18.3) Some services are meant for industry, some for people and some for both (e.g. transport); there are low-order and high-order services.
(18.2) Corporations established by State and Union legislation.
(18.3) Some services are meant for industry, some for people and some for both (e.g. transport); there are low-order and high-order services.
(18.1) Any one: grocery shop or laundry – these low-order services are found everywhere.
(18.2) Corporations set up under State and Union (central) laws supervise and control the marketing of services like transport, telecommunication, energy and water supply.
(18.3) Services are geared at different levels: some serve industries, some serve people, and some like transport serve both industry and people. Also, common low-order services (barber, grocer) are widespread, while high-order specialised services (consultants, physicians) are fewer.
(18.2) Corporations set up under State and Union (central) laws supervise and control the marketing of services like transport, telecommunication, energy and water supply.
(18.3) Services are geared at different levels: some serve industries, some serve people, and some like transport serve both industry and people. Also, common low-order services (barber, grocer) are widespread, while high-order specialised services (consultants, physicians) are fewer.
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19.
A bar graph shows the share (% of reporting area) of land-use categories in India in 1950–51 and 2014–15: Forests 17 → 23.3; Area under non-agricultural uses 3.2 → 8.7; Barren and unculturable waste land 13.4 → 5.5; Permanent pasture and grazing land 2.3 → 3.3; Area under misc. tree crops and groves 6.9 → 1.0; Culturable waste land 8 → 4; Fallow other than current fallow 6.1 → 3.6; Current fallow 3.7 → 4.9; Net area sown 41.7 → 45.5.
(19.1) Which category of land use shows the highest net increase in 2014–15 compared with 1950–51? (1)
(19.2) Which category shows the highest net decline in 2014–15 compared with 1950–51? (1)
(19.3) Give any two reasons for the fall in land under culturable wasteland. (½ + ½)
(19.2) Which category shows the highest net decline in 2014–15 compared with 1950–51? (1)
(19.3) Give any two reasons for the fall in land under culturable wasteland. (½ + ½)
Answer
(19.1) Forests (+6.3).
(19.2) Barren and unculturable waste land (−7.9).
(19.3) Pressure from agriculture and pressure from non-agricultural uses.
(19.2) Barren and unculturable waste land (−7.9).
(19.3) Pressure from agriculture and pressure from non-agricultural uses.
(19.1) Work out the change for each: Forests 23.3 − 17 = +6.3 (largest); non-agricultural uses +5.5; net area sown +3.8; current fallow +1.2; pasture +1.0. So Forests.
(19.2) Barren land 13.4 − 5.5 = −7.9 (largest fall); misc. tree crops −5.9; culturable waste −4; other fallow −2.5. So Barren and unculturable waste land.
(19.3) Culturable wasteland has fallen because (i) it has been brought under cultivation due to pressure from agriculture, and (ii) it has been used for houses, roads, industries etc. (pressure from non-agricultural activities).
Common mistake: read the change (difference), not the bigger bar.
(19.2) Barren land 13.4 − 5.5 = −7.9 (largest fall); misc. tree crops −5.9; culturable waste −4; other fallow −2.5. So Barren and unculturable waste land.
(19.3) Culturable wasteland has fallen because (i) it has been brought under cultivation due to pressure from agriculture, and (ii) it has been used for houses, roads, industries etc. (pressure from non-agricultural activities).
Common mistake: read the change (difference), not the bigger bar.
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SECTION C
Q20–23 are short answer questions of 3 marks each.
20.
Explain the criticisms that the World Trade Organization has faced.
Answer
Free trade does not help ordinary people; widens rich–poor gap; powerful nations push their own interests; developed countries keep markets closed to developing countries; ignores health, workers' rights, child labour and environment.
Any three points:
1. People worried about the effects of free trade and economic globalisation oppose it.
2. Free trade has not made the lives of ordinary people more prosperous.
3. It widens the gap between rich and poor countries, making the rich richer.
4. Influential member nations focus only on their own commercial interests.
5. Many developed countries have not fully opened their markets to goods from developing countries.
6. Issues like health, workers' rights, child labour and environment are neglected.
1. People worried about the effects of free trade and economic globalisation oppose it.
2. Free trade has not made the lives of ordinary people more prosperous.
3. It widens the gap between rich and poor countries, making the rich richer.
4. Influential member nations focus only on their own commercial interests.
5. Many developed countries have not fully opened their markets to goods from developing countries.
6. Issues like health, workers' rights, child labour and environment are neglected.
OR
What is meant by 'Balance of Trade'? Explain its characteristics. (1 + 2)
Answer
Balance of trade = record of the value of goods and services a country imports and exports. Imports > exports → negative/unfavourable; exports > imports → positive/favourable.
Meaning (1): Balance of trade records the volume/value of goods and services a country exports to and imports from other countries.
Characteristics (any two):
1. If the value of imports is more than the value of exports, the balance of trade is negative or unfavourable.
2. If the value of exports is more than imports, the balance is positive or favourable.
3. A long-run negative balance can drain a country's financial reserves.
Characteristics (any two):
1. If the value of imports is more than the value of exports, the balance of trade is negative or unfavourable.
2. If the value of exports is more than imports, the balance is positive or favourable.
3. A long-run negative balance can drain a country's financial reserves.
3
21.
Explain any three features of Phase II of population growth in India.
Answer
1921–1951: steady growth; better health and sanitation cut the death rate; better transport improved food distribution; birth rate stayed high → higher growth.
Any three:
1. The decades 1921–1951 are called the period of steady population growth.
2. General improvement in health and sanitation across the country lowered the mortality rate.
3. Better transport and communication improved the distribution system (e.g. of food during scarcity).
4. The crude birth rate remained high, so the growth rate was higher than in Phase I.
1. The decades 1921–1951 are called the period of steady population growth.
2. General improvement in health and sanitation across the country lowered the mortality rate.
3. Better transport and communication improved the distribution system (e.g. of food during scarcity).
4. The crude birth rate remained high, so the growth rate was higher than in Phase I.
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22.
Explain the concept of environmental determinism with an example.
Answer
Early humans with primitive technology were controlled by nature – they listened to it, feared its fury and worshipped it. Example: a primitive household depending directly on nature for food, shelter and resources.
Any three points:
1. Environmental determinism is the stage when primitive human society interacted with very strong forces of nature and was dominated by them.
2. Humans 'listened' to nature and adjusted to its dictates because their technology was very low.
3. They were afraid of nature's fury and worshipped it as a powerful force.
4. Example: an economically primitive household (like Benda in the NCERT story) depends directly on the forest for food, medicine and shelter; nature is revered and conserved.
1. Environmental determinism is the stage when primitive human society interacted with very strong forces of nature and was dominated by them.
2. Humans 'listened' to nature and adjusted to its dictates because their technology was very low.
3. They were afraid of nature's fury and worshipped it as a powerful force.
4. Example: an economically primitive household (like Benda in the NCERT story) depends directly on the forest for food, medicine and shelter; nature is revered and conserved.
OR
"The division between physical and human geography is not a very valid one." Explain this with examples.
Answer
Nature and humans are inseparable and must be seen holistically; physical features are described with human body words (mouth of a river, eye of a storm) and human features with nature words (arteries of circulation, regions as organisms).
Any three points:
1. Nature and human beings are so closely intertwined that they cannot be separated.
2. Geography must therefore study them holistically.
3. Physical features are described using metaphors from the human body – 'mouth' of a river, 'neck' of an isthmus, 'profile' of soil, 'face' of the earth, 'eye' of a storm.
4. Human features are described using natural/biological ideas – roads, railways and waterways are 'arteries of circulation'; regions, villages and towns are described as 'organisms'.
1. Nature and human beings are so closely intertwined that they cannot be separated.
2. Geography must therefore study them holistically.
3. Physical features are described using metaphors from the human body – 'mouth' of a river, 'neck' of an isthmus, 'profile' of soil, 'face' of the earth, 'eye' of a storm.
4. Human features are described using natural/biological ideas – roads, railways and waterways are 'arteries of circulation'; regions, villages and towns are described as 'organisms'.
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23.
Explain any three problems of slums in India.
Answer
Dilapidated, unhygienic houses; no ventilation, drinking water, light or toilets; open defecation and poor drainage; overcrowded narrow lanes; disease; social problems like drug abuse, alcoholism and crime.
Any three:
1. Slums are residential areas of the least choice with dilapidated houses and poor hygiene.
2. They lack ventilation and basic amenities such as drinking water, electricity and toilets.
3. Open defecation and unregulated drainage are common.
4. Streets are narrow and overcrowded, causing fire and health hazards.
5. Residents suffer from many diseases due to poor nutrition and sanitation.
6. Social evils like drug abuse, alcoholism and crime are widespread.
1. Slums are residential areas of the least choice with dilapidated houses and poor hygiene.
2. They lack ventilation and basic amenities such as drinking water, electricity and toilets.
3. Open defecation and unregulated drainage are common.
4. Streets are narrow and overcrowded, causing fire and health hazards.
5. Residents suffer from many diseases due to poor nutrition and sanitation.
6. Social evils like drug abuse, alcoholism and crime are widespread.
3
SECTION D
Q24–28 are long answer questions of 5 marks each.
24.
How is the Human Development Index (HDI) measured? Explain the key areas of human development. (2 + 3)
Answer
HDI ranks countries on health, education and access to resources with a score from 0 to 1 (closer to 1 = higher development). Key areas: health (life expectancy at birth), knowledge (adult literacy + gross enrolment ratio), resources (purchasing power in US $).
Measurement (2):
• The HDI ranks countries by their performance in three key areas – health, education and access to resources.
• Each country gets a score between 0 and 1; the closer to 1, the higher the human development.
Key areas (3):
1. Health – measured by life expectancy at birth.
2. Access to knowledge – measured by adult literacy rate and gross enrolment ratio.
3. Access to resources – measured by purchasing power (in US dollars).
• The HDI ranks countries by their performance in three key areas – health, education and access to resources.
• Each country gets a score between 0 and 1; the closer to 1, the higher the human development.
Key areas (3):
1. Health – measured by life expectancy at birth.
2. Access to knowledge – measured by adult literacy rate and gross enrolment ratio.
3. Access to resources – measured by purchasing power (in US dollars).
5
25.
Name the canal that links the Atlantic Ocean with the Pacific Ocean and explain its main features. (1 + 4)
Answer
Panama Canal: across the Isthmus of Panama between Panama City and Colon; built by the USA; about 72 km long; six-lock system; shortens New York–San Francisco and Europe–west USA–East Asia routes; vital for Latin American economies.
Name (1): Panama Canal.
Features (any four):
1. Built across the Isthmus of Panama between Panama City and Colon by the US government.
2. It is about 72 km long.
3. It has a six-lock system, so ships are lifted and lowered through different levels.
4. It greatly shortens the sea distance between New York and San Francisco.
5. It also shortens routes between Western Europe and the west coast of the USA, and between north-eastern/central USA and East/South-East Asia.
6. It is very important for the economies of Latin America.
Features (any four):
1. Built across the Isthmus of Panama between Panama City and Colon by the US government.
2. It is about 72 km long.
3. It has a six-lock system, so ships are lifted and lowered through different levels.
4. It greatly shortens the sea distance between New York and San Francisco.
5. It also shortens routes between Western Europe and the west coast of the USA, and between north-eastern/central USA and East/South-East Asia.
6. It is very important for the economies of Latin America.
OR
Explain the main features of the Rhine Waterways.
Answer
Flows through Germany and the Netherlands; navigable from Rotterdam to Basel; Ruhr joins from the east; world's most heavily used waterway; 20,000+ ocean ships and 2,00,000 inland vessels a year; links industrial areas of Switzerland, Germany, France, Belgium, Netherlands to the North Atlantic route.
Any five:
1. The Rhine flows through Germany and the Netherlands.
2. It is navigable for about 700 km from Rotterdam (Netherlands) at its mouth to Basel (Switzerland).
3. The Ruhr river joins it from the east; the Ruhr coalfield region lies along it.
4. It is the most heavily used inland waterway in the world.
5. Every year more than 20,000 ocean-going ships and about 2,00,000 inland vessels exchange cargo on it.
6. It connects the industrial areas of Switzerland, Germany, France, Belgium and the Netherlands with the North Atlantic sea route.
1. The Rhine flows through Germany and the Netherlands.
2. It is navigable for about 700 km from Rotterdam (Netherlands) at its mouth to Basel (Switzerland).
3. The Ruhr river joins it from the east; the Ruhr coalfield region lies along it.
4. It is the most heavily used inland waterway in the world.
5. Every year more than 20,000 ocean-going ships and about 2,00,000 inland vessels exchange cargo on it.
6. It connects the industrial areas of Switzerland, Germany, France, Belgium and the Netherlands with the North Atlantic sea route.
5
26.
Analyse the main features of plantation agriculture in the world.
Answer
Introduced by Europeans in tropical colonies; crops like tea, coffee, cocoa, rubber, oil palm, sugarcane, bananas; large estates; heavy capital; managerial and technical support; scientific methods; cheap labour; single-crop specialisation; good transport to factories and export markets.
Any five:
1. Introduced by Europeans in their colonies in the tropics.
2. Main crops: tea, coffee, cocoa, rubber, cotton, oil palm, sugarcane, bananas and pineapples.
3. Large estates or plantations.
4. Large capital investment.
5. Managerial and technical support are needed.
6. Scientific methods of cultivation are used.
7. Cheap labour is required.
8. Single-crop specialisation.
9. A good transport system links the estates with factories and markets for export of products.
1. Introduced by Europeans in their colonies in the tropics.
2. Main crops: tea, coffee, cocoa, rubber, cotton, oil palm, sugarcane, bananas and pineapples.
3. Large estates or plantations.
4. Large capital investment.
5. Managerial and technical support are needed.
6. Scientific methods of cultivation are used.
7. Cheap labour is required.
8. Single-crop specialisation.
9. A good transport system links the estates with factories and markets for export of products.
OR
Analyse the main features of extensive commercial grain cultivation in the world.
Answer
Interior semi-arid lands of mid-latitudes; wheat main crop (also corn, barley, oats, rye); very large farms; fully mechanised; low yield per acre but high yield per person; Eurasian Steppes, Prairies, Pampas, Velds, Downs, Canterbury Plains.
Any five:
1. Practised in the interior parts of semi-arid lands of the mid-latitudes.
2. Wheat is the principal crop; corn, barley, oats and rye are also grown.
3. Farms are very large in size.
4. All operations from ploughing to harvesting are mechanised.
5. Yield per acre is low but yield per person is high.
6. Best developed in the Eurasian Steppes, the Canadian and American Prairies, the Pampas of Argentina, the Velds of South Africa, the Australian Downs and the Canterbury Plains of New Zealand.
1. Practised in the interior parts of semi-arid lands of the mid-latitudes.
2. Wheat is the principal crop; corn, barley, oats and rye are also grown.
3. Farms are very large in size.
4. All operations from ploughing to harvesting are mechanised.
5. Yield per acre is low but yield per person is high.
6. Best developed in the Eurasian Steppes, the Canadian and American Prairies, the Pampas of Argentina, the Velds of South Africa, the Australian Downs and the Canterbury Plains of New Zealand.
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27.
Explain how Indian sea ports act as gateways of international trade.
Answer
Sea on three sides and long coastline; long seafaring tradition; water gives cheap eco-friendly transport; ports on both coasts (more on the west); ports act as suction points of hinterland resources; railways linked ports to local, regional and national markets; handle domestic and overseas trade; 12 major and ~200 minor ports.
Any five:
1. India is surrounded by sea on three sides and has a long coastline.
2. India has a long tradition of seafaring, and ports have been in use since ancient times.
3. Water offers a smooth, cheap and eco-friendly surface for transport.
4. India has ports on both the east and west coasts; the west coast has more ports. Ports vary in size and quality.
5. Ports act as suction points of resources from their hinterlands.
6. Extension of railways linked ports with local, regional and national markets.
7. Indian ports handle large volumes of domestic and overseas trade and are being equipped with modern infrastructure.
8. India has 12 major ports and about 200 minor/intermediate ports.
1. India is surrounded by sea on three sides and has a long coastline.
2. India has a long tradition of seafaring, and ports have been in use since ancient times.
3. Water offers a smooth, cheap and eco-friendly surface for transport.
4. India has ports on both the east and west coasts; the west coast has more ports. Ports vary in size and quality.
5. Ports act as suction points of resources from their hinterlands.
6. Extension of railways linked ports with local, regional and national markets.
7. Indian ports handle large volumes of domestic and overseas trade and are being equipped with modern infrastructure.
8. India has 12 major ports and about 200 minor/intermediate ports.
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28.
Analyse how conservation of mineral resources is linked with sustainable development in India.
Answer
Sustainable development joins economic growth with environmental care; traditional use creates waste and pollution; resources must be saved for future generations; replace exhaustible sources with solar, wind, wave, geothermal; recycle scrap metals (copper, lead, zinc); use substitutes; cut exports of strategic and scarce minerals.
Any five:
1. Sustainable development needs economic development to be combined with environmental concerns.
2. Traditional ways of using resources produce huge amounts of waste and other environmental problems.
3. Sustainable development calls for protecting resources for future generations, so minerals must be conserved.
4. Inexhaustible alternatives like solar, wind, wave and geothermal energy should be developed to replace exhaustible ones.
5. For metallic minerals, using scrap enables recycling; this is especially important for copper, lead and zinc, whose reserves in India are small.
6. Using substitutes for scarce metals reduces their consumption.
7. Export of strategic and scarce minerals should be reduced so that existing reserves last longer.
1. Sustainable development needs economic development to be combined with environmental concerns.
2. Traditional ways of using resources produce huge amounts of waste and other environmental problems.
3. Sustainable development calls for protecting resources for future generations, so minerals must be conserved.
4. Inexhaustible alternatives like solar, wind, wave and geothermal energy should be developed to replace exhaustible ones.
5. For metallic minerals, using scrap enables recycling; this is especially important for copper, lead and zinc, whose reserves in India are small.
6. Using substitutes for scarce metals reduces their consumption.
7. Export of strategic and scarce minerals should be reduced so that existing reserves last longer.
OR
Analyse the advantages of non-conventional energy sources, taking solar energy in India as an example.
Answer
Renewable, inexhaustible and widely available; more equitably distributed; eco-friendly; sustained and cheaper over time; can replace conventional sources. Solar: cost-competitive, clean, easy to set up, used in heaters, crop dryers, cookers; western India (Gujarat, Rajasthan) has high potential.
Advantages (any points):
1. They are renewable and inexhaustible – solar, wind, hydro-geothermal, biomass.
2. They are abundantly available and more equitably distributed.
3. They are environment-friendly and give more sustained energy.
4. They are cheaper in the long run.
5. They have the potential to replace conventional (fossil fuel) sources.
Solar energy example:
• Photovoltaic cells and solar thermal technology are becoming cost-competitive.
• It is clean and easy to set up even in remote areas.
• Used in appliances like water heaters, crop dryers, cookers and coolers.
• The western part of India – Gujarat and Rajasthan – has the greatest potential.
1. They are renewable and inexhaustible – solar, wind, hydro-geothermal, biomass.
2. They are abundantly available and more equitably distributed.
3. They are environment-friendly and give more sustained energy.
4. They are cheaper in the long run.
5. They have the potential to replace conventional (fossil fuel) sources.
Solar energy example:
• Photovoltaic cells and solar thermal technology are becoming cost-competitive.
• It is clean and easy to set up even in remote areas.
• Used in appliances like water heaters, crop dryers, cookers and coolers.
• The western part of India – Gujarat and Rajasthan – has the greatest potential.
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SECTION E
Q29–30 are map-based questions of 5 marks each.
29.
On a political outline map of the World, seven features are marked. Identify any five:
A: An area of extensive commercial grain farming (marked in the south-east of Africa).
B: A shipping canal (between the Mediterranean and the Red Sea, in Egypt).
C: A major sea port in Australia (on its south-west coast).
D: A major airport in Japan.
E: A major sea port of South America (on the south-east coast of Brazil).
F: An area of subsistence gathering (central/equatorial Africa).
G: A major inland waterway (in eastern North America, linking the Great Lakes to the Atlantic).
A: An area of extensive commercial grain farming (marked in the south-east of Africa).
B: A shipping canal (between the Mediterranean and the Red Sea, in Egypt).
C: A major sea port in Australia (on its south-west coast).
D: A major airport in Japan.
E: A major sea port of South America (on the south-east coast of Brazil).
F: An area of subsistence gathering (central/equatorial Africa).
G: A major inland waterway (in eastern North America, linking the Great Lakes to the Atlantic).
Answer
A – Velds (South Africa); B – Suez Canal; C – Perth; D – Tokyo; E – Rio de Janeiro; F – Tropical Africa (Congo Basin); G – St. Lawrence Seaway
A: The Velds of South Africa are temperate grasslands where wheat is grown on large mechanised farms.
B: The Suez Canal (Port Said–Suez) links the Mediterranean with the Red Sea.
C: Perth (Fremantle) is the main port of Western Australia.
D: Tokyo (Narita/Haneda) is the major international airport of Japan (Osaka also accepted).
E: Rio de Janeiro is a major port of Brazil.
F: Tropical/equatorial Africa (Congo Basin) – gathering of forest products.
G: The St. Lawrence Seaway – Great Lakes waterway of North America.
B: The Suez Canal (Port Said–Suez) links the Mediterranean with the Red Sea.
C: Perth (Fremantle) is the main port of Western Australia.
D: Tokyo (Narita/Haneda) is the major international airport of Japan (Osaka also accepted).
E: Rio de Janeiro is a major port of Brazil.
F: Tropical/equatorial Africa (Congo Basin) – gathering of forest products.
G: The St. Lawrence Seaway – Great Lakes waterway of North America.
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30.
On a political outline map of India, locate and label any five of these with suitable symbols:
(30.1) Tuticorin – major sea port
(30.2) Khetri – copper mines
(30.3) An international airport in Punjab
(30.4) The leading rice-producing state
(30.5) The state with the highest density of population
(30.6) An oil refinery in Uttar Pradesh
(30.7) Jharia – coal mines
(30.1) Tuticorin – major sea port
(30.2) Khetri – copper mines
(30.3) An international airport in Punjab
(30.4) The leading rice-producing state
(30.5) The state with the highest density of population
(30.6) An oil refinery in Uttar Pradesh
(30.7) Jharia – coal mines
Answer
(30.1) Tuticorin – Tamil Nadu coast; (30.2) Khetri – Rajasthan; (30.3) Amritsar; (30.4) West Bengal; (30.5) Bihar; (30.6) Mathura; (30.7) Jharia – Jharkhand
(30.1) Tuticorin (Thoothukudi) is on the south-east coast of Tamil Nadu, near the Gulf of Mannar.
(30.2) Khetri copper mines are in the Jhunjhunu district of north-east Rajasthan.
(30.3) Amritsar (Sri Guru Ram Dass Jee International Airport) in Punjab.
(30.4) West Bengal – shade the whole state.
(30.5) Bihar – shade the state (highest density as per Census 2011).
(30.6) Mathura oil refinery in western Uttar Pradesh.
(30.7) Jharia coalfield in Dhanbad district, Jharkhand.
Tip: use a dot for places and shading for states, and write the name next to each.
(30.2) Khetri copper mines are in the Jhunjhunu district of north-east Rajasthan.
(30.3) Amritsar (Sri Guru Ram Dass Jee International Airport) in Punjab.
(30.4) West Bengal – shade the whole state.
(30.5) Bihar – shade the state (highest density as per Census 2011).
(30.6) Mathura oil refinery in western Uttar Pradesh.
(30.7) Jharia coalfield in Dhanbad district, Jharkhand.
Tip: use a dot for places and shading for states, and write the name next to each.
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— END —
Questions restated from the CBSE Class XII Board Examination 2024 (set 64/1/1) for practice. Reading passages and map items are described, not reproduced.