Roll No.
Q.P. Code 56/1/1
Chemistry (Theory)
CBSE Class XII Board Examination 2026 — with answers
Time allowed: 3 hoursMaximum Marks: 70
General Instructions:
- The paper has 33 questions in five sections (A to E); all of them must be answered.
- Section A: Q1–16, multiple choice (Q13–16 Assertion-Reason), 1 mark each.
- Section B: Q17–21, very short answer, 2 marks each.
- Section C: Q22–28, short answer, 3 marks each.
- Section D: Q29–30, case-based, 4 marks each.
- Section E: Q31–33, long answer, 5 marks each.
- There is no overall choice, but some questions in Sections B to E offer an internal choice (OR). Calculators are not allowed.
SECTION A
Q1–16 are multiple choice questions of 1 mark each (Q13–16 are Assertion-Reason).
1.
Four graphs are shown. Which one is characteristic of a first order reaction?
(A) t½ plotted against initial concentration [R]₀ is a straight line rising from the origin.
(B) t½ plotted against [R]₀ is a horizontal straight line.
(C) Rate plotted against concentration is a horizontal straight line.
(D) Rate plotted against concentration is a curve that falls steeply and then levels off.
(A) t½ plotted against initial concentration [R]₀ is a straight line rising from the origin.
(B) t½ plotted against [R]₀ is a horizontal straight line.
(C) Rate plotted against concentration is a horizontal straight line.
(D) Rate plotted against concentration is a curve that falls steeply and then levels off.
- (A) t½ vs [R]₀: straight line rising from origin
- (B) t½ vs [R]₀: horizontal line
- (C) Rate vs concentration: horizontal line
- (D) Rate vs concentration: falling curve
Answer
(B) t½ independent of [R]₀
For a first order reaction t½ = 0.693/k, which contains no concentration term.
So t½ stays the same whatever the starting concentration → a horizontal line on a t½ vs [R]₀ graph.
(A) (t½ ∝ [R]₀) is zero order; (C) (rate independent of concentration) is also zero order. For first order, rate = k[R] would give a straight rising line, not a horizontal one.
So t½ stays the same whatever the starting concentration → a horizontal line on a t½ vs [R]₀ graph.
(A) (t½ ∝ [R]₀) is zero order; (C) (rate independent of concentration) is also zero order. For first order, rate = k[R] would give a straight rising line, not a horizontal one.
1
2.
Among the following aqueous solutions, which one freezes at the lowest temperature?
- (A) 0.1 M glucose
- (B) 0.1 M CaCl₂
- (C) 0.1 M KCl
- (D) 0.1 M urea
Answer
(B) 0.1 M CaCl₂
Depression in freezing point ΔTf = i·Kf·m, so the solution with the most particles (largest i) freezes lowest.
Glucose, urea: i = 1; KCl → K⁺ + Cl⁻: i = 2; CaCl₂ → Ca²⁺ + 2Cl⁻: i = 3.
CaCl₂ gives the largest ΔTf, hence the lowest freezing point.
Glucose, urea: i = 1; KCl → K⁺ + Cl⁻: i = 2; CaCl₂ → Ca²⁺ + 2Cl⁻: i = 3.
CaCl₂ gives the largest ΔTf, hence the lowest freezing point.
1
3.
Identify the element that is NOT regarded as a transition metal.
- (A) Sc
- (B) Ag
- (C) Hg
- (D) Cu
Answer
(C) Hg
A transition element has an incompletely filled d subshell in the atom or in one of its common oxidation states.
Hg (like Zn, Cd) is 5d¹⁰6s² and Hg²⁺ is 5d¹⁰ – d subshell always full, so it is not a true transition metal.
Sc (3d¹), Cu²⁺ (3d⁹) and Ag²⁺ (4d⁹) have partly filled d orbitals.
Hg (like Zn, Cd) is 5d¹⁰6s² and Hg²⁺ is 5d¹⁰ – d subshell always full, so it is not a true transition metal.
Sc (3d¹), Cu²⁺ (3d⁹) and Ag²⁺ (4d⁹) have partly filled d orbitals.
1
4.
Which expression gives the fraction of molecules that have energy equal to or greater than the activation energy Ea?
- (A) \( +\dfrac{E_a}{RT} \)
- (B) \( e^{-E_a/RT} \)
- (C) \( -\dfrac{E_a}{RT} \)
- (D) \( e^{+E_a/RT} \)
Answer
(B) \( e^{-E_a/RT} \)
In the Arrhenius equation k = A·e^(−Ea/RT), the factor e^(−Ea/RT) is the Boltzmann factor: the fraction of molecules having kinetic energy ≥ Ea.
It is always less than 1 and increases with temperature, which is why rate increases with T. e^(+Ea/RT) would be greater than 1, which is impossible for a fraction.
It is always less than 1 and increases with temperature, which is why rate increases with T. e^(+Ea/RT) would be greater than 1, which is impossible for a fraction.
1
5.
An aqueous solution of CuCl₂ is electrolysed using platinum electrodes. What is observed?
- (A) Copper deposits at the anode
- (B) H₂ gas is evolved at the cathode
- (C) O₂ gas is evolved at the anode
- (D) Cl₂ gas is evolved at the anode
Answer
(D) Cl₂ at anode
Cathode: Cu²⁺ (E° = +0.34 V) is reduced more easily than water, so Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu deposits on the cathode (not the anode, and no H₂).
Anode: in a reasonably concentrated chloride solution, Cl⁻ is oxidised because of the overpotential of O₂: 2Cl⁻ → Cl₂ + 2e⁻.
So chlorine gas is liberated at the anode.
Anode: in a reasonably concentrated chloride solution, Cl⁻ is oxidised because of the overpotential of O₂: 2Cl⁻ → Cl₂ + 2e⁻.
So chlorine gas is liberated at the anode.
1
6.
Aspirin is prepared by acetylating which compound?
- (A) Phenol
- (B) Salicylaldehyde
- (C) 2-Hydroxybenzoic acid
- (D) Benzoic acid
Answer
(C) 2-Hydroxybenzoic acid (salicylic acid)
Aspirin is acetylsalicylic acid (2-acetoxybenzoic acid).
It is made by treating salicylic acid (2-hydroxybenzoic acid) with acetic anhydride (or acetyl chloride) in the presence of an acid: the phenolic –OH becomes –OCOCH₃.
It is made by treating salicylic acid (2-hydroxybenzoic acid) with acetic anhydride (or acetyl chloride) in the presence of an acid: the phenolic –OH becomes –OCOCH₃.
1
7.
What is the secondary valency of cobalt in the complex ion [Co(NH₃)₅(NO₂)]²⁺?
- (A) 5
- (B) 1
- (C) 4
- (D) 6
Answer
(D) 6
Secondary valency (Werner) = coordination number = number of donor atoms bonded to the metal.
Five NH₃ + one NO₂⁻ (both monodentate) → 6 donor atoms.
So secondary valency = 6. (Primary valency = oxidation state = +3.)
Five NH₃ + one NO₂⁻ (both monodentate) → 6 donor atoms.
So secondary valency = 6. (Primary valency = oxidation state = +3.)
1
8.
When phenol is treated with dilute nitric acid at low temperature (about 298 K), the product is:
- (A) 2,4,6-trinitrophenol
- (B) o-nitrophenol only
- (C) p-nitrophenol only
- (D) a mixture of o- and p-nitrophenol
Answer
(D) o- and p-nitrophenol
–OH strongly activates the ring and is ortho/para directing, so even dilute HNO₃ nitrates phenol at room temperature.
A mixture of o-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol is formed (separated by steam distillation).
Picric acid (2,4,6-trinitrophenol) needs concentrated HNO₃.
A mixture of o-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol is formed (separated by steam distillation).
Picric acid (2,4,6-trinitrophenol) needs concentrated HNO₃.
1
9.
Pick the statement that is NOT correct for a pair of enantiomers.
- (A) Their chemical reactivity (towards achiral reagents) is the same.
- (B) Their specific rotation is the same.
- (C) Their melting/boiling points are the same.
- (D) Their refractive index is the same.
Answer
(B) – they do not have the same specific rotation
Enantiomers are non-superimposable mirror images. They have identical physical properties (m.p., b.p., refractive index, solubility) and identical reactivity towards achiral reagents.
They differ only in the direction of rotation of plane polarised light: equal magnitude, opposite sign (+ and −).
So 'same specific rotation' is false.
They differ only in the direction of rotation of plane polarised light: equal magnitude, opposite sign (+ and −).
So 'same specific rotation' is false.
1
10.
Direct nitration of aniline (with nitrating mixture) gives which product distribution?
- (A) 51% ortho, 47% para, 2% meta
- (B) 51% meta, 47% ortho, 2% para
- (C) 51% para, 47% meta, 2% ortho
- (D) 51% ortho, 47% meta, 2% para
Answer
(C) 51% para, 47% meta, 2% ortho
In strongly acidic nitrating mixture much of aniline is protonated to the anilinium ion C₆H₅NH₃⁺, which is meta directing.
The free aniline that remains gives mainly para product.
Result: about 51% p-nitroaniline, 47% m-nitroaniline and 2% o-nitroaniline. Oxidation products also form – that is why –NH₂ is protected by acetylation first.
The free aniline that remains gives mainly para product.
Result: about 51% p-nitroaniline, 47% m-nitroaniline and 2% o-nitroaniline. Oxidation products also form – that is why –NH₂ is protected by acetylation first.
1
11.
Which of these amines has the lowest pKb (i.e. is the strongest base)?
- (A) C₆H₅–N(CH₃)₂
- (B) C₆H₅–NH(CH₃)
- (C) C₆H₅–NH₂
- (D) p-O₂N–C₆H₄–NH₂ (4-nitroaniline)
Answer
(A) N,N-dimethylaniline
Lower pKb = stronger base.
In aryl amines, methyl groups on nitrogen push electron density (+I) onto N, increasing basicity: C₆H₅N(CH₃)₂ (pKb ≈ 8.92) > C₆H₅NHCH₃ (≈ 9.30) > C₆H₅NH₂ (≈ 9.38).
–NO₂ at para position withdraws electrons (−R, −I), making 4-nitroaniline a very weak base (highest pKb).
So N,N-dimethylaniline has the lowest pKb.
In aryl amines, methyl groups on nitrogen push electron density (+I) onto N, increasing basicity: C₆H₅N(CH₃)₂ (pKb ≈ 8.92) > C₆H₅NHCH₃ (≈ 9.30) > C₆H₅NH₂ (≈ 9.38).
–NO₂ at para position withdraws electrons (−R, −I), making 4-nitroaniline a very weak base (highest pKb).
So N,N-dimethylaniline has the lowest pKb.
1
12.
Lack of which vitamin leads to increased fragility of red blood cells and weakness of muscles?
- (A) Vitamin A
- (B) Vitamin K
- (C) Vitamin E
- (D) Vitamin D
Answer
(C) Vitamin E
Vitamin E (tocopherol) deficiency → increased fragility of RBCs and muscular weakness.
Others: A → night blindness/xerophthalmia; K → delayed blood clotting; D → rickets/osteomalacia.
Others: A → night blindness/xerophthalmia; K → delayed blood clotting; D → rickets/osteomalacia.
1
13.
Assertion (A): The two components of an azeotropic mixture cannot be separated by fractional distillation.
Reason (R): An azeotrope boils at a constant temperature, and its liquid and vapour have the same composition.
Reason (R): An azeotrope boils at a constant temperature, and its liquid and vapour have the same composition.
- (A) Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A.
- (B) Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A.
- (C) A is true, but R is false.
- (D) A is false, but R is true.
Answer
(A) Both true, R explains A
Fractional distillation works only because the vapour is richer in the more volatile component.
At the azeotropic composition the vapour has exactly the same composition as the liquid, and it boils at a fixed temperature, so no enrichment is possible.
Thus R is the correct explanation of A.
At the azeotropic composition the vapour has exactly the same composition as the liquid, and it boils at a fixed temperature, so no enrichment is possible.
Thus R is the correct explanation of A.
1
14.
Assertion (A): In phenols the –OH group sends the incoming electrophile to the meta position.
Reason (R): The –OH group of phenol activates the benzene ring for electrophilic substitution.
Reason (R): The –OH group of phenol activates the benzene ring for electrophilic substitution.
- (A) Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A.
- (B) Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A.
- (C) A is true, but R is false.
- (D) A is false, but R is true.
Answer
(D) A false, R true
By resonance (+R effect) the –OH group increases electron density at ortho and para positions, so it is ortho/para directing – the assertion (meta) is false.
The same resonance makes the ring more reactive than benzene, so the reason is true.
The same resonance makes the ring more reactive than benzene, so the reason is true.
1
15.
Assertion (A): Actinoids exhibit a wide range of oxidation states.
Reason (R): Actinoids are radioactive.
Reason (R): Actinoids are radioactive.
- (A) Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A.
- (B) Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A.
- (C) A is true, but R is false.
- (D) A is false, but R is true.
Answer
(B) Both true, R not the explanation
A is true: actinoids show many oxidation states (+3 to +7) because the 5f, 6d and 7s levels are of comparable energy, so variable numbers of electrons can be used.
R is true: all actinoids are radioactive.
But radioactivity has nothing to do with the range of oxidation states, so R does not explain A.
R is true: all actinoids are radioactive.
But radioactivity has nothing to do with the range of oxidation states, so R does not explain A.
1
16.
Assertion (A): Glucose pentaacetate does not react with hydroxylamine (H₂N–OH).
Reason (R): This shows that glucose has a free –CHO group.
Reason (R): This shows that glucose has a free –CHO group.
- (A) Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A.
- (B) Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A.
- (C) A is true, but R is false.
- (D) A is false, but R is true.
Answer
(C) A true, R false
A is true: the pentaacetate gives no oxime.
This behaviour shows that in glucose (and its pentaacetate) the –CHO group is NOT free – it is tied up in the cyclic hemiacetal structure. So R, which says it indicates a free –CHO group, is false.
This behaviour shows that in glucose (and its pentaacetate) the –CHO group is NOT free – it is tied up in the cyclic hemiacetal structure. So R, which says it indicates a free –CHO group, is false.
1
SECTION B
Q17–21 are very short answer questions of 2 marks each.
17.
A mixture of phenol and aniline deviates from Raoult's law. State the type of deviation with reason. How does the boiling point of the mixture compare with that expected?
Answer
Negative deviation; boiling point increases
Type: negative deviation from Raoult's law.
Reason: the phenolic O–H forms a strong intermolecular hydrogen bond with the lone pair on the nitrogen of aniline (O–H···N). These A–B attractions are stronger than the phenol–phenol and aniline–aniline attractions, so fewer molecules escape → vapour pressure is lower than predicted.
Effect: lower vapour pressure means the boiling point of the solution rises (such mixtures can form maximum-boiling azeotropes).
Reason: the phenolic O–H forms a strong intermolecular hydrogen bond with the lone pair on the nitrogen of aniline (O–H···N). These A–B attractions are stronger than the phenol–phenol and aniline–aniline attractions, so fewer molecules escape → vapour pressure is lower than predicted.
Effect: lower vapour pressure means the boiling point of the solution rises (such mixtures can form maximum-boiling azeotropes).
2
18.
Give two reasons why aryl halides (haloarenes) are much less reactive than alkyl halides towards nucleophilic substitution.
Answer
Partial double-bond character of C–X (resonance) and sp² carbon (any two reasons)
Any two:
1. Resonance: a lone pair on the halogen is delocalised into the ring, giving the C–X bond partial double-bond character; it is harder to break.
2. The carbon of C–X is sp² hybridised (more s character, more electronegative), so the bond is shorter and stronger than the sp³ C–X bond of haloalkanes.
3. The phenyl cation that SN1 would need is unstable (not resonance stabilised).
4. The electron-rich π cloud of the ring repels the incoming nucleophile; backside attack (SN2) is also blocked by the ring.
1. Resonance: a lone pair on the halogen is delocalised into the ring, giving the C–X bond partial double-bond character; it is harder to break.
2. The carbon of C–X is sp² hybridised (more s character, more electronegative), so the bond is shorter and stronger than the sp³ C–X bond of haloalkanes.
3. The phenyl cation that SN1 would need is unstable (not resonance stabilised).
4. The electron-rich π cloud of the ring repels the incoming nucleophile; backside attack (SN2) is also blocked by the ring.
2
19.
Give the IUPAC names of:
(i) [Ag(NH₃)₂][Ag(CN)₂]
(ii) K₃[Fe(C₂O₄)₃]
(i) [Ag(NH₃)₂][Ag(CN)₂]
(ii) K₃[Fe(C₂O₄)₃]
Answer
(i) Diamminesilver(I) dicyanidoargentate(I); (ii) Potassium trioxalatoferrate(III)
(i) Both ions are complex: cation [Ag(NH₃)₂]⁺ (Ag +1) is named first, then anion [Ag(CN)₂]⁻ (Ag +1, anion suffix -ate, Latin 'argent'):
Diamminesilver(I) dicyanidoargentate(I).
(ii) Oxalate C₂O₄²⁻ ×3 = −6, 3K⁺ = +3, so Fe = +3; anionic complex of iron → ferrate:
Potassium trioxalatoferrate(III).
Diamminesilver(I) dicyanidoargentate(I).
(ii) Oxalate C₂O₄²⁻ ×3 = −6, 3K⁺ = +3, so Fe = +3; anionic complex of iron → ferrate:
Potassium trioxalatoferrate(III).
OR
(i) Suggest a chemical test to show that [Co(NH₃)₅SO₄]Cl and [Co(NH₃)₅Cl]SO₄ are ionisation isomers.
(ii) What is the chelate effect? Give one example.
(ii) What is the chelate effect? Give one example.
Answer
(i) AgNO₃ (or BaCl₂) test; (ii) extra stability of complexes with polydentate ligands, e.g. [Co(en)₃]³⁺
(i) Add AgNO₃ solution to each: [Co(NH₃)₅SO₄]Cl releases Cl⁻ ions and gives a white precipitate of AgCl; [Co(NH₃)₅Cl]SO₄ does not (its Cl is inside the coordination sphere).
Alternatively BaCl₂ gives white BaSO₄ only with [Co(NH₃)₅Cl]SO₄.
(ii) Chelate effect: a di- or polydentate ligand that binds one metal ion through two or more donor atoms forms a ring (chelate); such complexes are more stable than similar complexes with monodentate ligands.
Example: [Co(en)₃]³⁺ is more stable than [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺; also metal–EDTA complexes.
Alternatively BaCl₂ gives white BaSO₄ only with [Co(NH₃)₅Cl]SO₄.
(ii) Chelate effect: a di- or polydentate ligand that binds one metal ion through two or more donor atoms forms a ring (chelate); such complexes are more stable than similar complexes with monodentate ligands.
Example: [Co(en)₃]³⁺ is more stable than [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺; also metal–EDTA complexes.
2
20.
Distinguish between:
(i) a peptide linkage and a glycosidic linkage
(ii) essential and non-essential amino acids
(i) a peptide linkage and a glycosidic linkage
(ii) essential and non-essential amino acids
Answer
(i) –CO–NH– between amino acids vs –O– between monosaccharides; (ii) from diet vs made in body
(i) Peptide linkage: amide bond –CO–NH– formed between the –COOH of one amino acid and the –NH₂ of another (with loss of water); found in proteins.
Glycosidic linkage: oxygen bridge (C–O–C) joining two monosaccharide units; found in di- and polysaccharides.
(ii) Essential amino acids cannot be synthesised by the body and must be supplied in the diet (e.g. valine, leucine, lysine).
Non-essential amino acids can be made in the body (e.g. glycine, alanine).
Glycosidic linkage: oxygen bridge (C–O–C) joining two monosaccharide units; found in di- and polysaccharides.
(ii) Essential amino acids cannot be synthesised by the body and must be supplied in the diet (e.g. valine, leucine, lysine).
Non-essential amino acids can be made in the body (e.g. glycine, alanine).
2
21.
The reaction 2A + B → 2C occurs in a single (elementary) step. If the volume of the reaction vessel is reduced to one-third of its original value, how does the rate change? Does the order of the reaction change?
Answer
Rate becomes 27 times; order unchanged (3)
Elementary step → rate law from stoichiometry: rate = k[A]²[B] (order 3).
Reducing volume to 1/3 makes every concentration 3 times larger.
New rate = k(3[A])²(3[B]) = 27k[A]²[B] → 27 times the original rate.
Order depends on the rate law, not on volume, so the order stays 3.
Reducing volume to 1/3 makes every concentration 3 times larger.
New rate = k(3[A])²(3[B]) = 27k[A]²[B] → 27 times the original rate.
Order depends on the rate law, not on volume, so the order stays 3.
2
SECTION C
Q22–28 are short answer questions of 3 marks each.
22.
The gas-phase decomposition C₂H₅Cl(g) → C₂H₄(g) + HCl(g) is first order. The total pressure was 0.30 atm at t = 0 s and 0.50 atm at t = 30 s. Find the rate constant. (log 3 = 0.48)
Answer
k ≈ 3.7 × 10⁻² s⁻¹
Let initial pressure P₀ = 0.30 atm and let x atm decompose.
At time t: C₂H₅Cl = P₀ − x, C₂H₄ = x, HCl = x → Pt = P₀ + x, so x = Pt − P₀ = 0.20 atm.
Pressure of reactant left = P₀ − x = 2P₀ − Pt = 0.60 − 0.50 = 0.10 atm.
k = (2.303/t) log[P₀/(2P₀ − Pt)] = (2.303/30) log(0.30/0.10) = (2.303/30) × 0.48
k = 0.0368 s⁻¹ ≈ 3.7 × 10⁻² s⁻¹.
Common mistake: using Pt directly in place of the reactant pressure.
At time t: C₂H₅Cl = P₀ − x, C₂H₄ = x, HCl = x → Pt = P₀ + x, so x = Pt − P₀ = 0.20 atm.
Pressure of reactant left = P₀ − x = 2P₀ − Pt = 0.60 − 0.50 = 0.10 atm.
k = (2.303/t) log[P₀/(2P₀ − Pt)] = (2.303/30) log(0.30/0.10) = (2.303/30) × 0.48
k = 0.0368 s⁻¹ ≈ 3.7 × 10⁻² s⁻¹.
Common mistake: using Pt directly in place of the reactant pressure.
3
23.
Answer:
(i) Why is the equilibrium constant Kc linked to E°cell and not to Ecell?
(ii) Metals A and B have standard electrode potentials −0.24 V and +0.80 V respectively. Which of them can displace hydrogen from dilute H₂SO₄?
(iii) Write the reaction taking place in a lead storage battery while it is being charged.
(i) Why is the equilibrium constant Kc linked to E°cell and not to Ecell?
(ii) Metals A and B have standard electrode potentials −0.24 V and +0.80 V respectively. Which of them can displace hydrogen from dilute H₂SO₄?
(iii) Write the reaction taking place in a lead storage battery while it is being charged.
Answer
(i) Ecell = 0 at equilibrium; (ii) A; (iii) 2PbSO₄ + 2H₂O → Pb + PbO₂ + 2H₂SO₄
(i) Nernst: Ecell = E°cell − (0.059/n) log Q. At equilibrium Ecell = 0 and Q = Kc, so E°cell = (0.059/n) log Kc. Since Ecell is always zero at equilibrium, Kc can only be related to the constant E°cell.
(ii) A metal with negative E° (below hydrogen, E° = 0) is a better reducing agent than H₂ and reduces H⁺ to H₂. So metal A (−0.24 V) liberates H₂; B (+0.80 V) cannot.
(iii) Charging reverses the discharge reaction (electrolysis):
2PbSO₄(s) + 2H₂O(l) → Pb(s) + PbO₂(s) + 2H₂SO₄(aq).
(ii) A metal with negative E° (below hydrogen, E° = 0) is a better reducing agent than H₂ and reduces H⁺ to H₂. So metal A (−0.24 V) liberates H₂; B (+0.80 V) cannot.
(iii) Charging reverses the discharge reaction (electrolysis):
2PbSO₄(s) + 2H₂O(l) → Pb(s) + PbO₂(s) + 2H₂SO₄(aq).
OR
What kind of battery is the mercury cell? Why is it better than a dry cell? Write the overall cell reaction of the mercury cell.
Answer
Primary cell; constant voltage (~1.35 V); Zn(Hg) + HgO → ZnO + Hg
Type: primary cell (cannot be recharged).
Advantage: it gives a constant potential (about 1.35 V) throughout its life, because the overall reaction contains no ions whose concentration changes; a dry cell's voltage falls as it is used.
Overall reaction: Zn(Hg) + HgO(s) → ZnO(s) + Hg(l)
(anode: Zn(Hg) + 2OH⁻ → ZnO + H₂O + 2e⁻; cathode: HgO + H₂O + 2e⁻ → Hg + 2OH⁻).
Advantage: it gives a constant potential (about 1.35 V) throughout its life, because the overall reaction contains no ions whose concentration changes; a dry cell's voltage falls as it is used.
Overall reaction: Zn(Hg) + HgO(s) → ZnO(s) + Hg(l)
(anode: Zn(Hg) + 2OH⁻ → ZnO + H₂O + 2e⁻; cathode: HgO + H₂O + 2e⁻ → Hg + 2OH⁻).
3
24.
0.61 g of benzoic acid (M = 122 g mol⁻¹) is dissolved in 5 g of CS₂, in which it dimerises to the extent of 88%. Find the boiling point of the solution. (Boiling point of CS₂ = 46.2 °C, Kb = 2.3 K kg mol⁻¹)
Answer
Tb ≈ 47.49 °C (ΔTb = 1.288 K)
Association 2 C₆H₅COOH ⇌ (C₆H₅COOH)₂ with α = 0.88.
i = 1 − α + α/2 = 1 − α/2 = 1 − 0.44 = 0.56.
Molality m = (0.61/122) × (1000/5) = 0.005 × 200 = 1.0 mol kg⁻¹.
ΔTb = i·Kb·m = 0.56 × 2.3 × 1.0 = 1.288 K.
Tb = 46.2 + 1.288 = 47.488 °C ≈ 47.49 °C.
Common mistake: taking i > 1 – association lowers the number of particles, so i < 1.
i = 1 − α + α/2 = 1 − α/2 = 1 − 0.44 = 0.56.
Molality m = (0.61/122) × (1000/5) = 0.005 × 200 = 1.0 mol kg⁻¹.
ΔTb = i·Kb·m = 0.56 × 2.3 × 1.0 = 1.288 K.
Tb = 46.2 + 1.288 = 47.488 °C ≈ 47.49 °C.
Common mistake: taking i > 1 – association lowers the number of particles, so i < 1.
3
25.
Write the reactions of D-glucose with:
(a) HI (on prolonged heating)
(b) bromine water
(c) concentrated HNO₃
(a) HI (on prolonged heating)
(b) bromine water
(c) concentrated HNO₃
Answer
(a) n-hexane; (b) gluconic acid; (c) saccharic (glucaric) acid
(a) CHO–(CHOH)₄–CH₂OH + HI, heat → CH₃–CH₂–CH₂–CH₂–CH₂–CH₃ (n-hexane); shows six carbons in a straight chain.
(b) CHO–(CHOH)₄–CH₂OH + [O] (Br₂ water, mild oxidant) → HOOC–(CHOH)₄–CH₂OH (gluconic acid); only –CHO is oxidised, showing an aldehyde group.
(c) CHO–(CHOH)₄–CH₂OH + conc. HNO₃ → HOOC–(CHOH)₄–COOH (saccharic acid); both the –CHO and the primary –CH₂OH are oxidised.
(b) CHO–(CHOH)₄–CH₂OH + [O] (Br₂ water, mild oxidant) → HOOC–(CHOH)₄–CH₂OH (gluconic acid); only –CHO is oxidised, showing an aldehyde group.
(c) CHO–(CHOH)₄–CH₂OH + conc. HNO₃ → HOOC–(CHOH)₄–COOH (saccharic acid); both the –CHO and the primary –CH₂OH are oxidised.
3
26.
Explain:
(a) Carboxylic acids boil at higher temperatures than alcohols of similar molar mass.
(b) The α-hydrogens of aldehydes and ketones are acidic.
(c) Ammonia and its derivatives do not add to the carbonyl group in a strongly acidic medium.
(a) Carboxylic acids boil at higher temperatures than alcohols of similar molar mass.
(b) The α-hydrogens of aldehydes and ketones are acidic.
(c) Ammonia and its derivatives do not add to the carbonyl group in a strongly acidic medium.
Answer
(a) H-bonded dimers; (b) –I of C=O and resonance-stabilised enolate; (c) nucleophile gets protonated
(a) Carboxylic acid molecules are held by stronger and more extensive hydrogen bonding; they exist as cyclic dimers even in the vapour, so more energy is needed to boil them.
(b) The C=O group withdraws electrons, weakening the α C–H bond, and the carbanion (enolate) formed after loss of H⁺ is stabilised by resonance with the carbonyl group.
(c) In strong acid the nitrogen lone pair of NH₃/NH₂–Z is protonated (NH₄⁺, ⁺NH₃–Z), so it is no longer a nucleophile and cannot attack the carbonyl carbon. Hence a weakly acidic medium (pH ≈ 3.5) is used.
(b) The C=O group withdraws electrons, weakening the α C–H bond, and the carbanion (enolate) formed after loss of H⁺ is stabilised by resonance with the carbonyl group.
(c) In strong acid the nitrogen lone pair of NH₃/NH₂–Z is protonated (NH₄⁺, ⁺NH₃–Z), so it is no longer a nucleophile and cannot attack the carbonyl carbon. Hence a weakly acidic medium (pH ≈ 3.5) is used.
3
27.
Write the chemical reaction for each:
(a) Reimer–Tiemann reaction
(b) Kolbe's reaction
(c) Friedel–Crafts acylation of anisole
(a) Reimer–Tiemann reaction
(b) Kolbe's reaction
(c) Friedel–Crafts acylation of anisole
Answer
(a) phenol → salicylaldehyde; (b) phenol → salicylic acid; (c) anisole → 2- and 4-methoxyacetophenone
(a) Phenol + CHCl₃ + aq. NaOH (≈ 340 K) → intermediate dichloromethyl compound → on acidification (H⁺) gives salicylaldehyde (2-hydroxybenzaldehyde), C₆H₄(OH)CHO.
(b) Phenol + NaOH → sodium phenoxide; heated with CO₂ (4–7 atm, ≈ 400 K) then H⁺ → salicylic acid (2-hydroxybenzoic acid), C₆H₄(OH)COOH.
(c) C₆H₅OCH₃ + CH₃COCl, anhydrous AlCl₃ → 2-methoxyacetophenone (minor) + 4-methoxyacetophenone (major) + HCl. –OCH₃ is o/p directing.
(b) Phenol + NaOH → sodium phenoxide; heated with CO₂ (4–7 atm, ≈ 400 K) then H⁺ → salicylic acid (2-hydroxybenzoic acid), C₆H₄(OH)COOH.
(c) C₆H₅OCH₃ + CH₃COCl, anhydrous AlCl₃ → 2-methoxyacetophenone (minor) + 4-methoxyacetophenone (major) + HCl. –OCH₃ is o/p directing.
3
28.
A compound X (C₄H₉Br) gives an alcohol with aqueous KOH, and the rate depends only on [X]. An optically active isomer Y of X reacts with aqueous KOH at a rate that depends on both [Y] and [KOH].
(a) Give the structures of X and Y.
(b) Which of X and Y would undergo racemisation, and why?
(c) Which one gives a product with inversion of configuration, and why?
(a) Give the structures of X and Y.
(b) Which of X and Y would undergo racemisation, and why?
(c) Which one gives a product with inversion of configuration, and why?
Answer
X = (CH₃)₃CBr; Y = CH₃CH(Br)CH₂CH₃; (b) X (SN1); (c) Y (SN2)
(a) Rate depends only on [X] → SN1 → X must give a stable 3° carbocation: X = (CH₃)₃C–Br (2-bromo-2-methylpropane).
Rate depends on [Y][OH⁻] → SN2; Y is optically active, so it has a chiral carbon: Y = CH₃–CH(Br)–CH₂–CH₃ (2-bromobutane).
(b) X – it reacts by SN1 through a planar carbocation that can be attacked from either face, so an optically active substrate would give a racemic mixture. (X itself is achiral, so its product is not optically active.)
(c) Y – SN2 occurs by backside attack of OH⁻ in one step (Walden inversion), so the product alcohol has the inverted configuration.
Rate depends on [Y][OH⁻] → SN2; Y is optically active, so it has a chiral carbon: Y = CH₃–CH(Br)–CH₂–CH₃ (2-bromobutane).
(b) X – it reacts by SN1 through a planar carbocation that can be attacked from either face, so an optically active substrate would give a racemic mixture. (X itself is achiral, so its product is not optically active.)
(c) Y – SN2 occurs by backside attack of OH⁻ in one step (Walden inversion), so the product alcohol has the inverted configuration.
3
SECTION D
Q29–30 are case-based questions of 4 (2 + 1 + 1) marks each, with an internal choice.
29.
Amines are basic and form salts with acids; aliphatic amines are stronger bases than NH₃ while aryl amines are weaker. 1° and 2° amines are acylated by acid chlorides; aryl amines are very reactive towards electrophiles (o/p substitution). Hinsberg's reagent distinguishes 1°, 2° and 3° amines, and arenediazonium salts are used to make aryl halides, nitriles, phenols and arenes.
(a) (i) In water, why is CH₃NH₂ a stronger base than (CH₃)₃N?
(ii) Give structures of A and B: CH₃CONH₂ —(NaOBr)→ A —(C₆H₅COCl, base)→ B.
(b) A compound X (C₃H₉N) gives with Hinsberg's reagent a product that is insoluble in alkali. Identify X.
(c) Why is the –NH₂ group of aniline acetylated before nitration?
(ii) Give structures of A and B: CH₃CONH₂ —(NaOBr)→ A —(C₆H₅COCl, base)→ B.
(b) A compound X (C₃H₉N) gives with Hinsberg's reagent a product that is insoluble in alkali. Identify X.
(c) Why is the –NH₂ group of aniline acetylated before nitration?
Answer
(a)(ii) A = CH₃NH₂, B = CH₃NHCOC₆H₅; (b) X = CH₃CH₂NHCH₃; (c) to control nitration and get p-product
(a)(i) In water basicity depends on +I effect, solvation of the conjugate acid by H-bonding, and steric factors together. CH₃NH₃⁺ has three N–H for H-bonding with water and is well stabilised; (CH₃)₃NH⁺ has only one N–H and the three methyl groups also hinder solvation and approach of H⁺. So CH₃NH₂ is the stronger base in water.
(ii) Hoffmann bromamide degradation: CH₃CONH₂ + NaOBr → A = CH₃NH₂ (one carbon less). Benzoylation: CH₃NH₂ + C₆H₅COCl (base) → B = CH₃NHCOC₆H₅ (N-methylbenzamide) + HCl.
(b) A 2° amine gives an N,N-dialkylsulphonamide with no acidic H on N, so it is alkali-insoluble. The only 2° amine of formula C₃H₉N is N-methylethanamine, CH₃CH₂NHCH₃.
(c) –NH₂ makes the ring too reactive (over-nitration, oxidation) and in acid it becomes meta-directing –NH₃⁺. Acetylation (–NHCOCH₃) moderates the activation, prevents anilinium ion formation, and gives mainly p-nitroaniline after hydrolysis.
(ii) Hoffmann bromamide degradation: CH₃CONH₂ + NaOBr → A = CH₃NH₂ (one carbon less). Benzoylation: CH₃NH₂ + C₆H₅COCl (base) → B = CH₃NHCOC₆H₅ (N-methylbenzamide) + HCl.
(b) A 2° amine gives an N,N-dialkylsulphonamide with no acidic H on N, so it is alkali-insoluble. The only 2° amine of formula C₃H₉N is N-methylethanamine, CH₃CH₂NHCH₃.
(c) –NH₂ makes the ring too reactive (over-nitration, oxidation) and in acid it becomes meta-directing –NH₃⁺. Acetylation (–NHCOCH₃) moderates the activation, prevents anilinium ion formation, and gives mainly p-nitroaniline after hydrolysis.
OR
(b)
How would you convert aniline into benzonitrile?
Answer
Diazotise (NaNO₂ + HCl, 0–5 °C), then CuCN
Step 1: C₆H₅NH₂ + NaNO₂ + 2HCl (0–5 °C) → C₆H₅N₂⁺Cl⁻ (benzenediazonium chloride) + NaCl + 2H₂O.
Step 2 (Sandmeyer): C₆H₅N₂⁺Cl⁻ + CuCN/KCN → C₆H₅CN + N₂.
Step 2 (Sandmeyer): C₆H₅N₂⁺Cl⁻ + CuCN/KCN → C₆H₅CN + N₂.
4
30.
Valence bond theory explains the formation, magnetism and shape of complexes. Crystal field theory treats ligands as point charges that remove the degeneracy of the metal d orbitals; different electron arrangements result in strong and weak fields.
(a) In an octahedral field, which d orbitals are raised in energy as the ligands approach? Give the reason.
(b) Using CFT, write the d-electron configuration of the central ion in (i) [CoF₆]³⁻ (ii) [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺. (Co = 27)
(c) Both [NiCl₄]²⁻ and [Ni(CO)₄] are tetrahedral, but the first is paramagnetic and the second diamagnetic. Why? (Ni = 28)
(b) Using CFT, write the d-electron configuration of the central ion in (i) [CoF₆]³⁻ (ii) [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺. (Co = 27)
(c) Both [NiCl₄]²⁻ and [Ni(CO)₄] are tetrahedral, but the first is paramagnetic and the second diamagnetic. Why? (Ni = 28)
Answer
(a) e_g (dx²−y², dz²); (b) t₂g⁴e_g², t₂g⁶e_g⁰; (c) Cl⁻ weak field vs CO strong field
(a) dx²−y² and dz² (the e_g set). In an octahedral complex the six ligands approach along the x, y, z axes; these two orbitals point directly along the axes, so they suffer greater repulsion and rise in energy (by 0.6Δo), while t₂g (dxy, dyz, dxz) lie between the axes and are lowered.
(b) Co³⁺ = 3d⁶.
(i) F⁻ is a weak-field ligand (Δo < P): t₂g⁴ e_g² (high spin, 4 unpaired).
(ii) NH₃ is a stronger field ligand for Co³⁺ (Δo > P): t₂g⁶ e_g⁰ (low spin, diamagnetic).
(c) [NiCl₄]²⁻: Ni²⁺ is 3d⁸; Cl⁻ is weak field and cannot pair electrons, so two unpaired electrons remain (sp³) → paramagnetic.
[Ni(CO)₄]: Ni(0) is 3d⁸4s²; strong-field CO pushes the 4s electrons into 3d giving 3d¹⁰ with all electrons paired (sp³) → diamagnetic.
(b) Co³⁺ = 3d⁶.
(i) F⁻ is a weak-field ligand (Δo < P): t₂g⁴ e_g² (high spin, 4 unpaired).
(ii) NH₃ is a stronger field ligand for Co³⁺ (Δo > P): t₂g⁶ e_g⁰ (low spin, diamagnetic).
(c) [NiCl₄]²⁻: Ni²⁺ is 3d⁸; Cl⁻ is weak field and cannot pair electrons, so two unpaired electrons remain (sp³) → paramagnetic.
[Ni(CO)₄]: Ni(0) is 3d⁸4s²; strong-field CO pushes the 4s electrons into 3d giving 3d¹⁰ with all electrons paired (sp³) → diamagnetic.
OR
(c)
State the hybridisation and magnetic nature of [Fe(CN)₆]³⁻. (Fe = 26)
Answer
d²sp³; paramagnetic (1 unpaired electron)
Fe³⁺ = 3d⁵. CN⁻ is a strong-field ligand, so electrons pair up in t₂g: t₂g⁵ (one unpaired electron).
Two empty 3d orbitals + 4s + three 4p → d²sp³ (inner orbital, octahedral).
One unpaired electron → paramagnetic (μ ≈ 1.73 BM).
Two empty 3d orbitals + 4s + three 4p → d²sp³ (inner orbital, octahedral).
One unpaired electron → paramagnetic (μ ≈ 1.73 BM).
4
SECTION E
Q31–33 are long answer questions of 5 marks each.
31.
(i) An organic compound X has molecular formula C₅H₁₀O. Draw X if it:
(I) gives a negative Tollens' test but a positive iodoform test;
(II) gives neither Tollens' nor iodoform test but undergoes aldol condensation;
(III) undergoes Cannizzaro reaction.
(ii) How can each of these be converted into benzoic acid? (I) Acetophenone (II) Ethylbenzene
(I) gives a negative Tollens' test but a positive iodoform test;
(II) gives neither Tollens' nor iodoform test but undergoes aldol condensation;
(III) undergoes Cannizzaro reaction.
(ii) How can each of these be converted into benzoic acid? (I) Acetophenone (II) Ethylbenzene
Answer
(I) CH₃COCH₂CH₂CH₃; (II) CH₃CH₂COCH₂CH₃; (III) (CH₃)₃CCHO; acetophenone/ethylbenzene → KMnO₄–KOH, heat, then H₃O⁺
(i) (I) No Tollens' → ketone; positive iodoform → CH₃CO– group: pentan-2-one, CH₃COCH₂CH₂CH₃ (3-methylbutan-2-one also fits).
(II) Ketone without CH₃CO– but with α-H: pentan-3-one, CH₃CH₂COCH₂CH₃.
(III) Cannizzaro needs an aldehyde with no α-H: 2,2-dimethylpropanal, (CH₃)₃C–CHO.
(ii) (I) C₆H₅COCH₃ + NaOI (I₂/NaOH) → C₆H₅COONa + CHI₃; then H⁺ → C₆H₅COOH. (Or KMnO₄–KOH, heat, then H₃O⁺.)
(II) C₆H₅CH₂CH₃ + alkaline KMnO₄, heat → C₆H₅COOK (whole side chain oxidised to –COOH); then H₃O⁺ → C₆H₅COOH.
(II) Ketone without CH₃CO– but with α-H: pentan-3-one, CH₃CH₂COCH₂CH₃.
(III) Cannizzaro needs an aldehyde with no α-H: 2,2-dimethylpropanal, (CH₃)₃C–CHO.
(ii) (I) C₆H₅COCH₃ + NaOI (I₂/NaOH) → C₆H₅COONa + CHI₃; then H⁺ → C₆H₅COOH. (Or KMnO₄–KOH, heat, then H₃O⁺.)
(II) C₆H₅CH₂CH₃ + alkaline KMnO₄, heat → C₆H₅COOK (whole side chain oxidised to –COOH); then H₃O⁺ → C₆H₅COOH.
OR
Answer briefly:
(i) Draw the 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazone of benzaldehyde.
(ii) Arrange in increasing order of reactivity towards HCN: di-tert-butyl ketone, acetaldehyde, acetone.
(iii) Give a simple chemical test to tell benzoic acid from ethyl benzoate.
(iv) Name the reagent that converts ethanenitrile into ethanal.
(v) Give the structure of X: cyclohexanol —(CrO₃)→ X.
(i) Draw the 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazone of benzaldehyde.
(ii) Arrange in increasing order of reactivity towards HCN: di-tert-butyl ketone, acetaldehyde, acetone.
(iii) Give a simple chemical test to tell benzoic acid from ethyl benzoate.
(iv) Name the reagent that converts ethanenitrile into ethanal.
(v) Give the structure of X: cyclohexanol —(CrO₃)→ X.
Answer
(ii) di-tert-butyl ketone < acetone < acetaldehyde; (iii) NaHCO₃; (iv) DIBAL-H then H₂O (or SnCl₂/HCl, Stephen); (v) cyclohexanone
(i) C₆H₅–CH=N–NH–C₆H₃(NO₂)₂, the NO₂ groups at positions 2 and 4 of the second ring (formed from C₆H₅CHO + H₂N–NH–C₆H₃(NO₂)₂ with loss of H₂O).
(ii) Reactivity in nucleophilic addition falls with more alkyl groups (+I, steric hindrance): (t-Bu)₂C=O < CH₃COCH₃ < CH₃CHO.
(iii) Add NaHCO₃ solution: benzoic acid gives brisk effervescence of CO₂; ethyl benzoate (an ester) does not.
(iv) (a) DIBAL-H, then H₂O; or (b) SnCl₂ + HCl, then H₃O⁺ (Stephen reduction): CH₃CN → CH₃CHO.
(v) CrO₃ oxidises the 2° alcohol to a ketone: X = cyclohexanone (C₆H₁₀O, ring with C=O).
(ii) Reactivity in nucleophilic addition falls with more alkyl groups (+I, steric hindrance): (t-Bu)₂C=O < CH₃COCH₃ < CH₃CHO.
(iii) Add NaHCO₃ solution: benzoic acid gives brisk effervescence of CO₂; ethyl benzoate (an ester) does not.
(iv) (a) DIBAL-H, then H₂O; or (b) SnCl₂ + HCl, then H₃O⁺ (Stephen reduction): CH₃CN → CH₃CHO.
(v) CrO₃ oxidises the 2° alcohol to a ketone: X = cyclohexanone (C₆H₁₀O, ring with C=O).
5
32.
(i) Standard electrode potentials E°(M²⁺/M) in volts are: V −1.18, Cr −0.91, Mn −1.18, Fe −0.44, Co −0.28, Ni −0.25, Cu +0.34. Using these:
(I) Why do the values show an irregular trend?
(II) Why is E°(Cu²⁺/Cu) unusually positive?
(III) Why is E°(Mn²⁺/Mn) highly negative?
(ii) Write ionic equations for the oxidation of I⁻ by KMnO₄ in (a) acidic and (b) neutral/faintly alkaline solution.
(I) Why do the values show an irregular trend?
(II) Why is E°(Cu²⁺/Cu) unusually positive?
(III) Why is E°(Mn²⁺/Mn) highly negative?
(ii) Write ionic equations for the oxidation of I⁻ by KMnO₄ in (a) acidic and (b) neutral/faintly alkaline solution.
Answer
(I) irregular IE and sublimation enthalpies; (II) high ΔaH, low ΔhydH of Cu; (III) stable 3d⁵ Mn²⁺
(i)(I) E°(M²⁺/M) depends on sublimation enthalpy + (IE₁ + IE₂) − hydration enthalpy. Ionisation and sublimation enthalpies vary irregularly across the series, so E° values are irregular.
(II) Cu has a high enthalpy of atomisation and high IE₂ which are not compensated by its hydration enthalpy; so converting Cu(s) to Cu²⁺(aq) is unfavourable → positive E°.
(III) Mn²⁺ is 3d⁵ (half-filled, extra stable), so Mn is readily oxidised to Mn²⁺ → highly negative E°.
(ii) Acidic: 2MnO₄⁻ + 10I⁻ + 16H⁺ → 2Mn²⁺ + 5I₂ + 8H₂O
Neutral/alkaline: 2MnO₄⁻ + I⁻ + H₂O → 2MnO₂ + IO₃⁻ + 2OH⁻
(II) Cu has a high enthalpy of atomisation and high IE₂ which are not compensated by its hydration enthalpy; so converting Cu(s) to Cu²⁺(aq) is unfavourable → positive E°.
(III) Mn²⁺ is 3d⁵ (half-filled, extra stable), so Mn is readily oxidised to Mn²⁺ → highly negative E°.
(ii) Acidic: 2MnO₄⁻ + 10I⁻ + 16H⁺ → 2Mn²⁺ + 5I₂ + 8H₂O
Neutral/alkaline: 2MnO₄⁻ + I⁻ + H₂O → 2MnO₂ + IO₃⁻ + 2OH⁻
OR
Answer:
(i) Name a lanthanoid that shows (I) the +4 oxidation state (II) the +2 oxidation state.
(ii) Why are transition metals good catalysts?
(iii) Why does Cr have a higher melting point than Mn?
(iv) What happens when an acidic solution of KMnO₄ is kept for some time? Write the equation and name the type of reaction.
(i) Name a lanthanoid that shows (I) the +4 oxidation state (II) the +2 oxidation state.
(ii) Why are transition metals good catalysts?
(iii) Why does Cr have a higher melting point than Mn?
(iv) What happens when an acidic solution of KMnO₄ is kept for some time? Write the equation and name the type of reaction.
Answer
(i) Ce (+4), Eu or Yb (+2); (iv) 4MnO₄⁻ + 4H⁺ → 4MnO₂ + 3O₂ + 2H₂O (slow redox decomposition)
(i) (I) Cerium, Ce⁴⁺ (4f⁰). (II) Europium, Eu²⁺ (4f⁷) or ytterbium, Yb²⁺ (4f¹⁴).
(ii) They show variable oxidation states (form unstable intermediates easily), can form complexes, and provide a large surface for adsorption of reactants.
(iii) Cr (3d⁵4s¹) can use more unpaired (n−1)d and ns electrons in metallic bonding than Mn, whose stable half-filled 3d⁵4s² configuration holds its electrons more tightly; stronger metallic bonding → higher m.p.
(iv) Acidified permanganate slowly decomposes, depositing brown MnO₂ and releasing oxygen:
4MnO₄⁻ + 4H⁺ → 4MnO₂ + 3O₂ + 2H₂O
Mn(+7) is reduced and O(−2) is oxidised to O₂ – it is a redox (decomposition) reaction, catalysed by the MnO₂ formed (autocatalysis).
(ii) They show variable oxidation states (form unstable intermediates easily), can form complexes, and provide a large surface for adsorption of reactants.
(iii) Cr (3d⁵4s¹) can use more unpaired (n−1)d and ns electrons in metallic bonding than Mn, whose stable half-filled 3d⁵4s² configuration holds its electrons more tightly; stronger metallic bonding → higher m.p.
(iv) Acidified permanganate slowly decomposes, depositing brown MnO₂ and releasing oxygen:
4MnO₄⁻ + 4H⁺ → 4MnO₂ + 3O₂ + 2H₂O
Mn(+7) is reduced and O(−2) is oxidised to O₂ – it is a redox (decomposition) reaction, catalysed by the MnO₂ formed (autocatalysis).
5
33.
Find the emf and ΔG of this cell at 298 K:
Mg(s) | Mg²⁺(0.01 M) || Ag⁺(0.001 M) | Ag(s)
Given E°(Mg²⁺/Mg) = −2.37 V, E°(Ag⁺/Ag) = +0.80 V, 1 F = 96500 C mol⁻¹, log 10 = 1.
Mg(s) | Mg²⁺(0.01 M) || Ag⁺(0.001 M) | Ag(s)
Given E°(Mg²⁺/Mg) = −2.37 V, E°(Ag⁺/Ag) = +0.80 V, 1 F = 96500 C mol⁻¹, log 10 = 1.
Answer
Ecell = 3.052 V; ΔG ≈ −589 kJ mol⁻¹
Cell reaction: Mg + 2Ag⁺ → Mg²⁺ + 2Ag, n = 2.
E°cell = E°cathode − E°anode = 0.80 − (−2.37) = 3.17 V.
Nernst: Ecell = E°cell − (0.059/2) log([Mg²⁺]/[Ag⁺]²)
= 3.17 − 0.0295 log(0.01/(0.001)²) = 3.17 − 0.0295 log 10⁴ = 3.17 − 0.0295 × 4
= 3.17 − 0.118 = 3.052 V.
ΔG = −nFEcell = −2 × 96500 × 3.052 = −589 036 J mol⁻¹ ≈ −589 kJ mol⁻¹.
Common mistake: forgetting to square [Ag⁺].
E°cell = E°cathode − E°anode = 0.80 − (−2.37) = 3.17 V.
Nernst: Ecell = E°cell − (0.059/2) log([Mg²⁺]/[Ag⁺]²)
= 3.17 − 0.0295 log(0.01/(0.001)²) = 3.17 − 0.0295 log 10⁴ = 3.17 − 0.0295 × 4
= 3.17 − 0.118 = 3.052 V.
ΔG = −nFEcell = −2 × 96500 × 3.052 = −589 036 J mol⁻¹ ≈ −589 kJ mol⁻¹.
Common mistake: forgetting to square [Ag⁺].
OR
For the cell reaction 2AgCl(s) + H₂(g, 0.4 atm) → 2Ag(s) + 2H⁺(0.1 M) + 2Cl⁻(0.2 M), ΔG° = −43500 J mol⁻¹. Find the emf of the cell at 25 °C. (log 10 = 1, 1 F = 96500 C mol⁻¹)
Answer
Ecell ≈ 0.314 V
n = 2.
E°cell = −ΔG°/(nF) = 43500/(2 × 96500) = 0.225 V.
Q = [H⁺]²[Cl⁻]²/p(H₂) = (0.1)²(0.2)²/0.4 = (0.01 × 0.04)/0.4 = 10⁻³ (solids omitted).
Ecell = E°cell − (0.059/2) log Q = 0.225 − 0.0295 × (−3) = 0.225 + 0.0885
Ecell = 0.3135 V ≈ 0.314 V.
E°cell = −ΔG°/(nF) = 43500/(2 × 96500) = 0.225 V.
Q = [H⁺]²[Cl⁻]²/p(H₂) = (0.1)²(0.2)²/0.4 = (0.01 × 0.04)/0.4 = 10⁻³ (solids omitted).
Ecell = E°cell − (0.059/2) log Q = 0.225 − 0.0295 × (−3) = 0.225 + 0.0885
Ecell = 0.3135 V ≈ 0.314 V.
5
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Questions restated from the CBSE Class XII Board Examination 2026 (set 56/1/1) for practice. Reading passages and map items are described, not reproduced.