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Roll No.
Q.P. Code 56/4/1

Chemistry (Theory)

CBSE Class XII Board Examination 2025 — with answers

Time allowed: 3 hoursMaximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

  1. The paper has 33 questions in five sections (A to E); all of them must be answered.
  2. Section A: Q1–16, multiple choice (Q13–16 Assertion-Reason), 1 mark each.
  3. Section B: Q17–21, very short answer, 2 marks each.
  4. Section C: Q22–28, short answer, 3 marks each.
  5. Section D: Q29–30, case-based, 4 marks each.
  6. Section E: Q31–33, long answer, 5 marks each.
  7. There is no overall choice, but some questions in Sections B to E offer an internal choice (OR). Calculators are not allowed.

SECTION A

Q1–16 are multiple choice questions of 1 mark each (Q13–16 are Assertion-Reason).
1.
A cell works on the reaction 2Cu⁺(aq) + Zn(s) → 2Cu(s) + Zn²⁺(aq), with E°cell = 1.28 V. What happens to the cell voltage as the reaction goes on?
  1. (A) It stays the same.
  2. (B) It falls as [Zn²⁺] rises.
  3. (C) It rises as [Cu⁺] rises.
  4. (D) It rises as [Zn²⁺] rises.
Answer
(B) The voltage decreases as [Zn²⁺] increases.
Nernst equation: \( E = E^\circ - \frac{0.059}{2}\log\frac{[Zn^{2+}]}{[Cu^{+}]^2} \).
As the cell runs, Zn²⁺ is produced (numerator grows) and Cu⁺ is used up (denominator shrinks).
So the log term grows and E falls; at equilibrium E becomes zero.
Mistake to avoid: [Cu⁺] decreases during the reaction, it does not increase.
1
2.
Which of these ions is colourless in water: Fe³⁺, Sc³⁺, Cr³⁺, Co³⁺? (Atomic numbers: Fe 26, Sc 21, Cr 24, Co 27)
  1. (A) Sc³⁺
  2. (B) Fe³⁺
  3. (C) Cr³⁺
  4. (D) Co³⁺
Answer
(A) Sc³⁺
Colour in transition-metal ions comes from d–d transitions, which need partly filled d orbitals.
Sc³⁺ = [Ar]3d⁰ – no d electron, so no d–d transition → colourless.
Fe³⁺ (3d⁵), Cr³⁺ (3d³) and Co³⁺ (3d⁶) all have unpaired d electrons and are coloured.
1
3.
Which compound undergoes the Hoffmann bromamide degradation?
  1. (A) ArNO₂
  2. (B) ArNH₂
  3. (C) ArCONH₂
  4. (D) ArCH₂NH₂
Answer
(C) ArCONH₂
Hoffmann bromamide degradation needs a primary amide: RCONH₂ + Br₂ + 4NaOH → RNH₂ + Na₂CO₃ + 2NaBr + 2H₂O.
So ArCONH₂ (an aromatic amide) gives ArNH₂, an amine with one carbon less.
1
4.
A Haworth (pyranose) ring of a sugar is drawn with its carbons numbered: C-5 carries the CH₂OH group and is bonded to the ring oxygen; C-1 is on the other side of the ring oxygen and carries an OH and an H; C-2, C-3 and C-4 carry H and OH groups. Which numbered carbon is the anomeric carbon?
  1. (A) 1
  2. (B) 2
  3. (C) 3
  4. (D) 5
Answer
(A) Carbon 1
The anomeric carbon is the former carbonyl carbon that becomes a new chiral centre on ring closure (the hemiacetal carbon).
In an aldohexose like glucose this is C-1: it is bonded to both the ring oxygen and an OH group.
The α and β forms (anomers) differ only in the OH position at this carbon.
1
5.
Henry's law constant K_H is:
  1. (A) larger for more soluble gases
  2. (B) larger for less soluble gases
  3. (C) the same for all gases
  4. (D) unrelated to gas solubility
Answer
(B) Greater for gases with lower solubility
Henry's law: p = K_H·x, so x = p/K_H.
At the same partial pressure, a larger K_H means a smaller mole fraction x in solution, i.e. lower solubility.
1
6.
Pick the INCORRECT statement.
  1. (A) La is really an element of the transition series.
  2. (B) Because of lanthanoid contraction, Zr and Hf have nearly the same atomic radii.
  3. (C) Ionic radius decreases from La³⁺ to Lu³⁺.
  4. (D) Lanthanoids are radioactive.
Answer
(D) 'Lanthanoids are radioactive' is incorrect.
(A) La (5d¹6s²) is the first member of the 5d transition series – true.
(B) Lanthanoid contraction makes Hf almost the same size as Zr – true.
(C) Ionic radius falls steadily from La³⁺ to Lu³⁺ – true.
(D) Only promethium (Pm) is radioactive; lanthanoids in general are not – false.
1
7.
Among 2-bromobutane, 1-bromobutane, 2-bromopropane and 1-bromopropane, which molecule is chiral?
  1. (A) 2-Bromobutane
  2. (B) 1-Bromobutane
  3. (C) 2-Bromopropane
  4. (D) 1-Bromopropane
Answer
(A) 2-Bromobutane
A chiral molecule needs a carbon with four different groups.
2-Bromobutane: C-2 carries H, Br, CH₃ and C₂H₅ – four different groups → chiral.
2-Bromopropane: C-2 has two CH₃ groups → not chiral. The 1-bromo compounds have no such carbon.
1
8.
Aniline is treated with NaNO₂/HCl at 0–5 °C to give X, and X is then treated with ethanol to give Y. What is Y?
  1. (A) Phenol (C₆H₅OH)
  2. (B) Benzene (C₆H₆)
  3. (C) Nitrobenzene (C₆H₅NO₂)
  4. (D) Benzenediazonium chloride (C₆H₅N₂⁺Cl⁻)
Answer
(B) Benzene
Step 1 (diazotisation): C₆H₅NH₂ + NaNO₂ + 2HCl → C₆H₅N₂⁺Cl⁻ (X) + NaCl + 2H₂O.
Step 2: ethanol (a mild reducing agent) replaces –N₂⁺ by –H: C₆H₅N₂⁺Cl⁻ + CH₃CH₂OH → C₆H₆ + N₂ + CH₃CHO + HCl.
So Y = benzene. (Warming X with water would give phenol instead.)
1
9.
When I⁻ is oxidised by MnO₄⁻ in alkaline medium, the product is:
  1. (A) IO₄⁻
  2. (B) I₂
  3. (C) IO⁻
  4. (D) IO₃⁻
Answer
(D) IO₃⁻ (iodate)
In neutral or faintly alkaline solution permanganate oxidises iodide to iodate:
2MnO₄⁻ + H₂O + I⁻ → 2MnO₂ + 2OH⁻ + IO₃⁻.
In acidic medium the product would be I₂ instead.
1
10.
DDT is an important polyhalogen compound. It is a:
  1. (A) greenhouse gas
  2. (B) fertilizer
  3. (C) biodegradable insecticide
  4. (D) non-biodegradable insecticide
Answer
(D) Non-biodegradable insecticide
DDT (p,p'-dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane) is an insecticide.
It is chemically very stable and fat-soluble, so it is not broken down and builds up in food chains – hence non-biodegradable.
1
11.
How much charge is needed to reduce 1 mol of MnO₄⁻ to Mn²⁺?
  1. (A) 1 F
  2. (B) 5 F
  3. (C) 4 F
  4. (D) 6 F
Answer
(B) 5 F
Oxidation state of Mn changes from +7 (MnO₄⁻) to +2 (Mn²⁺): 5 electrons per ion.
MnO₄⁻ + 8H⁺ + 5e⁻ → Mn²⁺ + 4H₂O.
1 mol MnO₄⁻ needs 5 mol electrons = 5 F.
1
12.
Alcohols give alkenes when heated with concentrated H₂SO₄. What is the first step of this reaction?
  1. (A) formation of a carbocation
  2. (B) formation of an ester
  3. (C) protonation of the alcohol
  4. (D) loss of water
Answer
(C) Protonation of the alcohol molecule
Mechanism of acid-catalysed dehydration:
Step 1: the –OH oxygen takes a proton → protonated alcohol (R–OH₂⁺).
Step 2: water leaves → carbocation (slow step).
Step 3: a β-hydrogen is lost as H⁺ → alkene.
1
13.
Assertion (A): Electrolysis of aqueous NaCl gives H₂ at the cathode and Cl₂ at the anode.
Reason (R): Chlorine has a higher oxidation potential than water.
  1. (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. (B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. (C) A is true but R is false.
  4. (D) A is false but R is true.
Answer
(C) A is true, R is false.
A is true: H₂ forms at the cathode, Cl₂ at the anode.
R is false: thermodynamically water is easier to oxidise (E° for O₂ formation 1.23 V vs 1.36 V for Cl₂). Cl₂ is liberated only because oxygen evolution has a high overpotential.
1
14.
Assertion (A): Cuprous salts are diamagnetic.
Reason (R): The cuprous ion has completely filled 3d orbitals.
  1. (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. (B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. (C) A is true but R is false.
  4. (D) A is false but R is true.
Answer
(A) Both true; R explains A.
Cu⁺ = [Ar]3d¹⁰ – all d electrons paired, no unpaired electron.
No unpaired electrons → diamagnetic. So R correctly explains A.
1
15.
Assertion (A): n-Butyl chloride boils at a higher temperature than n-butyl bromide.
Reason (R): The C–Cl bond is more polar than the C–Br bond.
  1. (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. (B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. (C) A is true but R is false.
  4. (D) A is false but R is true.
Answer
(D) A is false, R is true.
For the same alkyl group, boiling point rises with the size and mass of the halogen: RI > RBr > RCl > RF, because van der Waals forces grow. So n-butyl bromide boils higher – A is false.
R is true: Cl is more electronegative than Br, so C–Cl is more polar.
1
16.
Assertion (A): Acetanilide is a weaker base than aniline.
Reason (R): Acetylation of aniline lowers the electron density on nitrogen.
  1. (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. (B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. (C) A is true but R is false.
  4. (D) A is false but R is true.
Answer
(A) Both true; R explains A.
In acetanilide (C₆H₅NHCOCH₃) the nitrogen lone pair is delocalised onto the C=O group (resonance with the acetyl group).
So less electron density is available on N to accept a proton → weaker base than aniline. R is the reason for A.
1

SECTION B

Q17–21 are very short answer questions of 2 marks each.
17.
A reactant A decomposes. Its concentration was measured every hour: t = 0 h, [A] = 0.40 M; 1 h, 0.20 M; 2 h, 0.10 M; 3 h, 0.05 M. From these data predict the order of the reaction and write its rate law.
Answer
First order; Rate = k[A] (k = 0.693 h⁻¹)
[A] halves every hour: 0.40 → 0.20 → 0.10 → 0.05 M.
A half-life that stays constant (1 h) and does not depend on the starting concentration is the mark of a first-order reaction.
Rate law: Rate = k[A].
k = 0.693/t½ = 0.693/1 h = 0.693 h⁻¹.
OR
H₂(g) and I₂(g) react in a closed container kept at constant temperature, with rate law Rate = k[H₂][I₂]. If 1 mole more of H₂(g) is added, what happens to (i) the rate of reaction and (ii) the rate constant?
Answer
Rate increases; rate constant k stays the same.
(i) Adding H₂ raises [H₂] in the fixed volume; since rate ∝ [H₂], the rate increases.
(ii) The rate constant depends only on temperature (and catalyst), not on concentration. Temperature is constant, so k does not change.
2
18.
A solution of PtCl₄·2KCl gives no AgCl precipitate with AgNO₃. Write the structural formula of the complex and its IUPAC name.
Answer
K₂[PtCl₆] – potassium hexachloridoplatinate(IV)
No AgCl precipitate → no free Cl⁻ ions; all six Cl are bound to Pt inside the coordination sphere.
Formula: K₂[PtCl₆] (ionises into 2K⁺ and [PtCl₆]²⁻).
Oxidation state of Pt: x − 6 = −2 → x = +4.
IUPAC name: potassium hexachloridoplatinate(IV).
2
19.
What is a fuel cell? State two advantages of a fuel cell over an ordinary cell.
Answer
A galvanic cell that turns the energy of combustion of a fuel (e.g. H₂, CH₄) directly into electricity; high efficiency and pollution-free.
Definition: a fuel cell is a galvanic cell in which the energy of combustion of fuels such as hydrogen or methane is converted directly into electrical energy, the reactants being supplied continuously.
Example: H₂–O₂ cell, 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O.
Advantages: (1) high efficiency (about 70%, vs about 40% for thermal power plants); (2) pollution-free – product is water; also it runs continuously as long as fuel is fed.
2
20.
Write the main products:
(a) Cyclohexanone carrying a –CH₂CH₂COOCH₃ group on the carbon next to the C=O (methyl 3-(2-oxocyclohexyl)propanoate) is treated with NaBH₄.
(b) 6 (CH₃)₃C–OH + 2Al →
Answer
(a) Methyl 3-(2-hydroxycyclohexyl)propanoate; (b) 2Al[OC(CH₃)₃]₃ + 3H₂
(a) NaBH₄ is a mild reducing agent: it reduces the ketone C=O to CH–OH but does not reduce the ester group. Product: 2-hydroxycyclohexyl ring with the –CH₂CH₂COOCH₃ side chain unchanged.
(b) Alcohols are acidic enough to react with active metals, releasing hydrogen: 6(CH₃)₃COH + 2Al → 2Al[OC(CH₃)₃]₃ (aluminium tert-butoxide) + 3H₂.
2
21.
What are essential amino acids? Why do amino acids behave as amphoteric compounds?
Answer
Amino acids the body cannot make and must get from diet; amphoteric because they have both –COOH and –NH₂ groups (zwitter ion).
Essential amino acids: those that cannot be synthesised in the body and must be taken in through food (e.g. valine, leucine, lysine).
Amphoteric nature: an amino acid contains an acidic –COOH group and a basic –NH₂ group; in solution it exists as a zwitter ion H₃N⁺–CHR–COO⁻, so it reacts with both acids (COO⁻ takes H⁺) and bases (NH₃⁺ gives H⁺).
2

SECTION C

Q22–28 are short answer questions of 3 marks each.
22.
Explain:
(i) Allyl chloride is hydrolysed faster than n-propyl chloride.
(ii) Alkyl halides give isocyanides with silver cyanide.
(iii) In an SN2 reaction with OH⁻, methyl chloride reacts faster than t-butyl chloride.
Answer
(i) Resonance-stabilised allylic carbocation; (ii) AgCN is covalent – only N can donate; (iii) less steric hindrance in CH₃Cl.
(i) Allyl chloride ionises to the allyl carbocation CH₂=CH–CH₂⁺, which is stabilised by resonance; n-propyl carbocation has no such stabilisation. So allyl chloride hydrolyses more readily.
(ii) AgCN is mainly covalent: the carbon is tied to Ag, so the lone pair on nitrogen attacks the alkyl carbon → R–N≡C (isocyanide). (KCN is ionic and gives nitriles.)
(iii) In SN2 the nucleophile attacks from the back side. In CH₃Cl the carbon is unhindered; in (CH₃)₃CCl three bulky methyl groups block the approach, so CH₃Cl reacts faster.
OR
Give the structures of A and B:
(i) CH₃CH=CH₂ + HBr (peroxide) → A; A + aq. KOH → B
(ii) CH₃CH₂CH(Cl)CH₃ + alc. KOH → A; A + HBr → B
(iii) A + Mg (dry ether) → CH₃CH₂MgCl; CH₃CH₂MgCl + H₂O/H⁺ → B (main product)
Answer
(i) A = CH₃CH₂CH₂Br, B = CH₃CH₂CH₂OH; (ii) A = CH₃CH=CHCH₃, B = CH₃CH₂CHBrCH₃; (iii) A = CH₃CH₂Cl, B = CH₃CH₃
(i) With peroxide, HBr adds anti-Markovnikov (Kharasch effect): A = 1-bromopropane CH₃CH₂CH₂Br. Aqueous KOH substitutes Br by OH: B = propan-1-ol.
(ii) Alcoholic KOH causes dehydrohalogenation; by Saytzeff's rule the more substituted alkene forms: A = but-2-ene CH₃CH=CHCH₃. HBr adds to give B = 2-bromobutane CH₃CH₂CHBrCH₃.
(iii) Grignard reagent CH₃CH₂MgCl comes from A = chloroethane CH₃CH₂Cl. Water protonates the carbanion part: B = ethane CH₃CH₃ (+ Mg(OH)Cl).
3
23.
A voltaic cell is made at 25 °C from the half-cells Al/Al³⁺(0.001 M) and Ni/Ni²⁺(0.1 M). Given E°(Ni²⁺/Ni) = −0.25 V and E°(Al³⁺/Al) = −1.66 V, calculate the cell voltage.
Answer
E_cell ≈ 1.44 V
Al has the lower E°, so Al is the anode: 2Al + 3Ni²⁺ → 2Al³⁺ + 3Ni; n = 6.
E°cell = E°cathode − E°anode = −0.25 − (−1.66) = 1.41 V.
Nernst: \( E = E^\circ - \frac{0.059}{6}\log\frac{[Al^{3+}]^2}{[Ni^{2+}]^3} \).
Q = (10⁻³)²/(10⁻¹)³ = 10⁻⁶/10⁻³ = 10⁻³, log Q = −3.
E = 1.41 − (0.059/6)(−3) = 1.41 + 0.0295 = 1.4395 ≈ 1.44 V.
Mistake to avoid: use n = 6 (LCM of 2 and 3) and raise concentrations to their coefficients.
3
24.
Explain:
(a) Mn³⁺ and Cr²⁺ are both d⁴ ions, yet Mn³⁺ is an oxidising agent while Cr²⁺ is a reducing agent.
(b) The contraction from one element to the next is greater among actinoids than among lanthanoids.
(c) Transition metals form many interstitial compounds with H, B, C and N.
Answer
(a) Mn³⁺→Mn²⁺ gives stable d⁵; Cr²⁺→Cr³⁺ gives stable t₂g³ (d³); (b) 5f electrons shield worse than 4f; (c) small atoms fit into the metal lattice voids.
(a) Mn³⁺ (3d⁴) gains an electron to become Mn²⁺ (3d⁵), an extra-stable half-filled configuration → it is easily reduced, so it oxidises others. Cr²⁺ (3d⁴) loses an electron to become Cr³⁺ (3d³ = half-filled t₂g³), which is very stable → it reduces others.
(b) 5f orbitals are more diffuse and shield the outer electrons more poorly than 4f orbitals, so the effective nuclear charge rises more per element → larger contraction in actinoids.
(c) H, B, C and N atoms are very small and get trapped in the empty spaces (interstitial sites) of the metal crystal lattice, forming interstitial compounds like TiC, Fe₃H.
3
25.
For an aqueous NaOH solution, the molar mass found from osmotic pressure measurement at 27 °C was 25 g mol⁻¹. Calculate the percentage dissociation of NaOH. (Na = 23, O = 16, H = 1)
Answer
α = 0.6, i.e. 60% dissociation
Normal molar mass of NaOH = 23 + 16 + 1 = 40 g mol⁻¹.
Van't Hoff factor i = normal molar mass / observed molar mass = 40/25 = 1.6.
NaOH → Na⁺ + OH⁻, so n = 2 ions: α = (i − 1)/(n − 1) = (1.6 − 1)/(2 − 1) = 0.6.
Percentage dissociation = 60%.
3
26.
Arrange as directed:
(a) C₂H₅NH₂, (C₂H₅)₂NH, C₆H₅NHCH₃, C₆H₅NH₂ – decreasing pKb
(b) C₂H₅OH, C₂H₅NH₂, (CH₃)₂NH – increasing boiling point
(c) C₆H₅NH₂, (C₂H₅)₂NH, C₂H₅NH₂ – increasing solubility in water
Answer
(a) C₆H₅NH₂ > C₆H₅NHCH₃ > C₂H₅NH₂ > (C₂H₅)₂NH; (b) (CH₃)₂NH < C₂H₅NH₂ < C₂H₅OH; (c) C₆H₅NH₂ < (C₂H₅)₂NH < C₂H₅NH₂
(a) Higher pKb = weaker base. Aryl amines are weak (lone pair delocalised in ring); N-methyl group makes C₆H₅NHCH₃ slightly stronger than aniline. Aliphatic amines are stronger; in water (C₂H₅)₂NH is the strongest. So pKb: C₆H₅NH₂ > C₆H₅NHCH₃ > C₂H₅NH₂ > (C₂H₅)₂NH.
(b) Secondary amine has one N–H (weaker H-bonding) < primary amine with two N–H < alcohol (O–H bond more polar, stronger H-bonds).
(c) Solubility depends on H-bonding with water versus the size of the hydrocarbon part: aniline (large phenyl) least; diethylamine (bigger alkyl, one N–H) next; ethylamine most soluble.
3
27.
Aromatic compound A (C₈H₈O) gives a positive 2,4-DNP test and a yellow precipitate B with sodium hypoiodite. A does not react with Tollens' or Fehling's reagent. Strong oxidation of A with KMnO₄ gives a carboxylic acid C. Identify A, B and C and give their IUPAC names.
Answer
A = C₆H₅COCH₃ (1-phenylethan-1-one); B = CHI₃ (triiodomethane); C = C₆H₅COOH (benzoic acid)
Positive 2,4-DNP → carbonyl compound. No Tollens'/Fehling's → not an aldehyde, so a ketone.
Iodoform (yellow ppt) with NaOI → contains a CH₃CO– group.
C₈H₈O aromatic ketone with CH₃CO– = acetophenone C₆H₅COCH₃ (A), IUPAC: 1-phenylethan-1-one.
C₆H₅COCH₃ + 3NaOI → C₆H₅COONa + CHI₃↓ (B = triiodomethane, iodoform) + 2NaOH.
Vigorous oxidation removes the side chain to –COOH: C = benzoic acid, C₆H₅COOH (IUPAC: benzenecarboxylic acid).
3
28.
(a) Can t-butyl ethyl ether be made from sodium ethoxide and t-butyl chloride? Explain, and suggest the right starting materials for making this ether.
(b) Give the IUPAC name of this ether.
Answer
(a) No – elimination dominates; use sodium t-butoxide + chloroethane; (b) 2-ethoxy-2-methylpropane
(a) No. In Williamson synthesis the halide must be primary. Ethoxide is a strong base as well as a nucleophile; with tertiary t-butyl chloride it removes a β-H, so elimination wins and 2-methylpropene forms instead of the ether.
Correct route: (CH₃)₃CONa + CH₃CH₂Cl → (CH₃)₃C–O–CH₂CH₃ + NaCl (SN2 on the primary halide).
(b) (CH₃)₃C–O–C₂H₅ = 2-ethoxy-2-methylpropane.
3

SECTION D

Q29–30 are case-based questions of 4 marks each. Read the case and answer the questions that follow.
29.
The case discusses ideal solutions: in an ideal mixture the attractions between like and unlike molecules are equal. Truly ideal mixtures are rare, but very dilute solutions behave ideally towards the solvent, which is why Raoult's law describes them.
(a) Give one example of a pair of miscible liquids showing negative deviation from Raoult's law. Why does such deviation occur? (2)
(b) (i) State Raoult's law for a solution of volatile components. (1)
(c) Write two characteristics of an ideal solution. (1)
Answer
(a) Chloroform + acetone – A–B attractions stronger than A–A and B–B; (b) partial vapour pressure of each component ∝ its mole fraction; (c) ΔmixH = 0 and ΔmixV = 0.
(a) Example: chloroform + acetone (also HNO₃ + water). Reason: new A–B attractions (here H-bond between CHCl₃ and the C=O of acetone) are stronger than A–A and B–B, so molecules escape less and vapour pressure is lower than predicted.
(b) Raoult's law: in a solution of volatile liquids, the partial vapour pressure of each component equals its mole fraction times the vapour pressure of the pure component, p₁ = p₁°x₁.
(c) Ideal solution: ΔmixH = 0, ΔmixV = 0 (and it obeys Raoult's law at all concentrations).
OR
(b)(ii)
Raoult's law is a special case of Henry's law. Comment.
Answer
Both say p ∝ x; Raoult's law is Henry's law with K_H = p°.
Henry's law: p = K_H·x. Raoult's law: p = p°·x.
Both state that the partial pressure of a component is proportional to its mole fraction in solution.
When K_H becomes equal to p° (the vapour pressure of the pure component), Henry's law becomes Raoult's law – so Raoult's law is a special case of Henry's law.
4
30.
The case describes ribose and 2-deoxyribose, sugars of great biological importance, whose phosphate derivatives at the 5′ position matter a lot; purine and pyrimidine bases joined to these sugars form nucleosides.
(a) What products are formed when DNA is hydrolysed? Give one structural difference between DNA and RNA. (2)
(b) Distinguish between a nucleotide and a nucleoside. (1)
(c) (i) Mention two important functions of nucleic acids. (1)
Answer
(a) 2-deoxyribose, phosphoric acid and nitrogen bases (A, G, C, T); DNA double helix, RNA single strand; (b) nucleotide = sugar + base + phosphate, nucleoside = sugar + base; (c) carry genetic information and direct protein synthesis.
(a) Complete hydrolysis of DNA gives 2-deoxy-D-ribose, phosphoric acid and the bases adenine, guanine, cytosine and thymine.
Structural difference: DNA is a double-stranded helix; RNA is single-stranded (also DNA sugar is deoxyribose, RNA has ribose; DNA has T, RNA has U).
(b) Nucleoside = pentose sugar + nitrogenous base. Nucleotide = nucleoside + phosphate group (sugar + base + phosphate).
(c) Functions: DNA stores and passes on hereditary (genetic) information; nucleic acids (RNA) carry out protein synthesis.
OR
(c)(ii)
Name the linkage that joins two nucleotides. Name the base present in RNA nucleotides but not in DNA.
Answer
Phosphodiester linkage; uracil
Nucleotides are joined through a phosphate that links C-3′ of one sugar to C-5′ of the next – a phosphodiester linkage.
RNA contains uracil (U) in place of thymine (T) found in DNA.
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SECTION E

Q31–33 are long answer questions of 5 marks each.
31.
(i) Write the main products:
(I) Cyclohexanone + H₂NCONHNH₂ (semicarbazide) →
(II) (CH₃)₂Cd + 2CH₃COCl →
(III) Benzoyl chloride (C₆H₅COCl) + H₂ / Pd–BaSO₄ →
(ii) Give a simple chemical test to distinguish:
(I) ethyl benzoate and benzoic acid
(II) propanal and propanone
Answer
(I) cyclohexanone semicarbazone; (II) 2CH₃COCH₃ + CdCl₂; (III) C₆H₅CHO; tests: NaHCO₃ for benzoic acid, Tollens' for propanal.
(i)(I) Carbonyl + semicarbazide → semicarbazone (loss of H₂O): C₆H₁₀=N–NH–CO–NH₂ (cyclohexanone semicarbazone).
(II) Dialkylcadmium converts acid chlorides to ketones: (CH₃)₂Cd + 2CH₃COCl → 2CH₃COCH₃ (propanone) + CdCl₂.
(III) Rosenmund reduction: C₆H₅COCl + H₂ (Pd/BaSO₄) → C₆H₅CHO (benzaldehyde) + HCl. BaSO₄ poisons Pd so the aldehyde is not reduced further.
(ii)(I) Add NaHCO₃ solution: benzoic acid gives brisk effervescence of CO₂; ethyl benzoate (ester) does not.
(II) Warm with Tollens' reagent: propanal gives a silver mirror; propanone does not. (Iodoform test also works: propanone gives yellow CHI₃, propanal does not.)
OR
(i) Complete each synthesis by giving the missing starting material, reagent or product:
(I) Ethylbenzene → (i) KMnO₄, KOH (ii) H₃O⁺ → ?
(II) Methylenecyclohexane (C₆H₁₀=CH₂) → ? → cyclohexanecarbaldehyde (C₆H₁₁CHO)
(III) 4-Oxocyclohexane-1-carbaldehyde (ring with C=O at C-4 and –CHO at C-1) + [Ag(NH₃)₂]⁺ → ?
(ii) Carry out the conversions:
(I) benzaldehyde to benzophenone
(II) benzaldehyde to 3-phenylpropanol
Answer
(I) benzoic acid; (II) B₂H₆ then H₂O₂/OH⁻ then PCC; (III) 4-oxocyclohexane-1-carboxylic acid; conversions via Grignard + oxidation and via aldol + H₂/Ni.
(i)(I) Alkaline KMnO₄ oxidises the whole side chain of an alkylbenzene to –COO⁻; acidifying gives benzoic acid C₆H₅COOH.
(II) Hydroboration–oxidation adds water anti-Markovnikov: (BH₃)₂ then H₂O₂/OH⁻ gives cyclohexylmethanol C₆H₁₁CH₂OH; PCC then oxidises the primary alcohol to the aldehyde C₆H₁₁CHO.
(III) Tollens' reagent oxidises only the aldehyde group; the ketone is untouched → 4-oxocyclohexane-1-carboxylic acid (as its salt, with a silver mirror).
(ii)(I) C₆H₅CHO + C₆H₅MgBr, then H₃O⁺ → (C₆H₅)₂CHOH (diphenylmethanol); oxidise with PCC or CrO₃ → (C₆H₅)₂CO (benzophenone).
(II) Cross aldol (Claisen–Schmidt): C₆H₅CHO + CH₃CHO, dil. NaOH, heat → C₆H₅CH=CHCHO (cinnamaldehyde); H₂/Ni reduces both C=C and C=O → C₆H₅CH₂CH₂CH₂OH (3-phenylpropan-1-ol).
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32.
(i) Give reasons:
(I) [Ni(CO)₄] is diamagnetic but [NiCl₄]²⁻ is paramagnetic. (Ni = 28)
(II) CO is a stronger complexing agent than NH₃.
(III) The trans isomer of [Co(en)₂Cl₂]⁺ is optically inactive.
(ii) Using crystal field theory, give the number of unpaired electrons in an octahedral Fe³⁺ complex with (I) a strong field ligand, (II) a weak field ligand. (Fe = 26)
Answer
(I) CO pairs the electrons (no unpaired e⁻), Cl⁻ does not (2 unpaired); (II) CO forms σ + π (back) bonds; (III) trans form has a plane of symmetry; Fe³⁺: strong field 1, weak field 5 unpaired.
(i)(I) In [Ni(CO)₄], Ni is 0 (3d⁸4s²). CO is a strong field ligand: the 4s electrons are pushed into 3d → 3d¹⁰, sp³ hybrid, no unpaired electron → diamagnetic. In [NiCl₄]²⁻, Ni²⁺ is 3d⁸; Cl⁻ is weak field and causes no pairing → 2 unpaired electrons, sp³ → paramagnetic.
(II) CO donates a lone pair (σ bond) and also accepts metal d electrons into its empty π* orbitals (π back-bonding). This synergic bonding makes the M–CO bond strong; NH₃ forms only a σ bond.
(III) In trans-[Co(en)₂Cl₂]⁺ the two Cl are opposite; the ion has a plane of symmetry, so its mirror image is superimposable → optically inactive.
(ii) Fe³⁺ = 3d⁵.
(I) Strong field (Δo > P): t₂g⁵ eg⁰ → 1 unpaired electron (low spin).
(II) Weak field (Δo < P): t₂g³ eg² → 5 unpaired electrons (high spin).
OR
(i) Name the type of isomerism shown by each, and draw/write the corresponding isomers:
(I) [Co(NH₃)₆][Cr(CN)₆]
(II) [Co(en)₃]³⁺
(III) [Co(NH₃)₃(NO₂)₃]
(ii) Differentiate between weak field and strong field ligands. How does ligand strength affect the spin of a complex?
Answer
(I) coordination isomerism – [Cr(NH₃)₆][Co(CN)₆]; (II) optical isomerism – d and l forms; (III) geometrical – fac and mer; strong field → large Δo → low spin, weak field → small Δo → high spin.
(i)(I) Coordination isomerism – ligands swap between the cationic and anionic metal centres: isomer [Cr(NH₃)₆][Co(CN)₆].
(II) Optical isomerism – [Co(en)₃]³⁺ has no plane of symmetry; the three en rings can twist either way, giving two non-superimposable mirror images, d (dextro) and l (laevo).
(III) Geometrical (fac–mer) isomerism – fac: the three NH₃ (and three NO₂) on one triangular face of the octahedron; mer: the three like ligands lie in a plane around the meridian.
(ii) Weak field ligands (I⁻, Cl⁻, F⁻, H₂O) cause small splitting of d orbitals (small Δo); strong field ligands (CN⁻, CO, en, NH₃) cause large splitting (large Δo).
Effect on spin: with strong field ligands Δo > P, electrons pair in t₂g → fewer unpaired electrons → low-spin complex. With weak field ligands Δo < P, electrons enter eg before pairing → more unpaired electrons → high-spin complex.
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33.
(i) For the first-order reaction N₂O₅(g) → 2NO₂(g) + ½O₂(g) at 318 K, [N₂O₅] fell from 1.2 × 10⁻² mol L⁻¹ to 0.2 × 10⁻² mol L⁻¹ in 60 minutes. Calculate the rate constant. (log 6 = 0.778)
(ii) Explain:
(I) The order of a reaction cannot be found from its balanced equation.
(II) A bimolecular reaction can behave as first order under a certain condition.
Answer
k ≈ 2.99 × 10⁻² min⁻¹ (0.0299 min⁻¹); order is experimental; one reactant in large excess → pseudo first order.
(i) \( k = \frac{2.303}{t}\log\frac{[R]_0}{[R]} \).
[R]₀/[R] = (1.2 × 10⁻²)/(0.2 × 10⁻²) = 6.
k = (2.303/60 min) × log 6 = (2.303 × 0.778)/60 = 1.7917/60 = 0.0299 min⁻¹ ≈ 2.99 × 10⁻² min⁻¹.
(ii)(I) Order depends on the actual mechanism (the slow step), not on the stoichiometric coefficients; it must be found experimentally.
(II) If one reactant is taken in large excess (e.g. water in hydrolysis of an ester), its concentration stays nearly constant, so rate depends on the other reactant only → pseudo first-order reaction.
OR
(i) The rate of a reaction doubles when the temperature is raised by 10 K from 298 K. Calculate the activation energy Ea. (2.303R = 19.15 J K⁻¹ mol⁻¹, log 2 = 0.3)
(ii) For 2H₂O₂ → 2H₂O + O₂ (catalysed by I⁻), the proposed mechanism is:
(I) H₂O₂ + I⁻ → H₂O + IO⁻ (slow)
(II) H₂O₂ + IO⁻ → H₂O + I⁻ + O₂ (fast)
(1) Write the rate law. (2) Give the overall order and the molecularity.
Answer
Ea ≈ 52.7 kJ mol⁻¹; Rate = k[H₂O₂][I⁻]; order 2, molecularity 2.
(i) \( \log\frac{k_2}{k_1} = \frac{E_a}{2.303R}\left(\frac{T_2 - T_1}{T_1T_2}\right) \), with k₂/k₁ = 2, T₁ = 298 K, T₂ = 308 K.
0.3 = (Ea/19.15) × (10/(298 × 308)).
Ea = 0.3 × 19.15 × 298 × 308 / 10 = 0.3 × 19.15 × 9178.4 = 52 730 J mol⁻¹ ≈ 52.7 kJ mol⁻¹.
(ii)(1) The slow step decides the rate: Rate = k[H₂O₂][I⁻].
(2) Overall order = 1 + 1 = 2; the slow step involves two species, so molecularity = 2 (bimolecular).
Note: I⁻ is a catalyst – used in step I and regenerated in step II.
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Questions restated from the CBSE Class XII Board Examination 2025 (set 56/4/1) for practice. Reading passages and map items are described, not reproduced.